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3 answers

the greeks used a demonstration close to that one http://www.math.utah.edu/~pa/math/q1.html

It's a simple proof by contradiction.


Not having read the original document (in greek), I can't say it for sure, but from what I found on the net, they used that demonstration. (at least, that idea)

2006-08-13 22:01:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Actually the proof goes something like this,

assume it is rational root(2) = p/q

2p^2 = q^2..... so that p and q should have common factor (2) but this is not possible since we assumed p/q doesn't have common factors....(see previous link)

Actually using this argument we could prove that any nonsquare number's square root is irrational.

2006-08-14 06:34:11 · answer #2 · answered by blind_chameleon 5 · 1 0

Because it is ir-rational number

2006-08-18 01:26:48 · answer #3 · answered by Amar Soni 7 · 0 1

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