For all real numbers x and k is an element of the set of integers.
(1)
csc x +cot x =1
1/(sin x ) + (cos x)/(sin x) = 1
(1 + cos x)/sin x =1
(1 + cos x)²/sin² x = 1
(1 + cos x)²/(1 - cos² x) = 1, since sin² x = 1 - cos² x
(1 + cos x)²/[(1 + cos x)(1 - cos x)] = 1
(1 + cos x)/(1 - cos x) = 1
1 + cos x = 1 - cos x
cos x = -cos x
2cos x = 0
cos x = 0
x = π/2 + kπ
0 ≤ (2k + 1)π/2 < 2π
{ π/2, 3π/2 }
(2)
(1 + cos x)/(1 - cos x) = 0
Since 1 - cos x ≠ 0, cos x ≠ 1
Therefore, 1 + cos x = 0
cos x = -1
x = π + 2kπ
0 ≤ (2k + 1)π < 2π
{ π }
2006-08-14 06:24:04
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answer #1
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answered by Jerry M 3
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1)
csc(x) + cot(x) = 1
1/sin(x) + cos(x)/sin(x)=1
sin x != 0 (!= means not equal to)
So x != k*pi with k an integer
Muliply both sides by sin(x)
1+cos(x)=sin(x)
square both sides. We know automatically that sin(x)> 0 since 0<=1+cos(x)=sin(x) ; thus 2*k*pi < x < 3*k*pi ; k an integer
(1+cos(x))^2= sin^2(x)
1+2cos(x)+cos^2(x)=sin^2(x)
(1-sin^2(x))+2cos(x)+cos^2(x)=0
cos^2(x)+2cos(x)+cos^2(x)=0
2cos(x)(1+cos(x))=0
So either cos(x) = 0 or (1+cos(x)) = 0
If cos(x) = 0 then x = pi / 2 + k* pi ; k an integer
If (1+cos(x))=0 then cos(x)=-1 but that means sin(x) = 0 which isnt a valid answer since we initially said sin(x)!=0 (or we would be dividing by 0)
So all our solutions are
x = pi/2 + k*pi ; k an integer with our first constraint that sin(x) > 0 though we have
x = pi/2 + 2*k*pi
on [0,2*pi) our solutions are x = pi/2
2)
Clearly 1-cos(x) !=0 so that cos(x)!=1 so that x != 2*k*pi ; for k an integer
Clearly then this can only be 0 if the numerator is 0.
Thus 1+cos(x)=0.
So cos(x)=-1
So x = 2*k*pi + pi
So that on [0,2*pi) our solution is
x = pi
2006-08-14 02:12:33
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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1.Let's write the first one
csc(x) +cot(x) = 1
so
1/sinx + cosx/sinx =1
In multiplying the 2 terms by sinx :
1+cosx= sinx
So (1+cosx)²= sinx²=1-cos²x
So 1+cos²x+2cosx =1 - cos²x
So 2 cos²x+2 cosx = 0
cosx( cosx +1) = 0
cosx= 0 x= pi/2 or x=-pi/2
cosx=-1 x= pi but impossible sinx =0 and equation not defined
Let's try the solutions in the first equation only one is correct because we took the square.
So 1 solution x= pi/2
2/ If cox is not equal to 1 we can multiply the 2 sides by cosx-1 so
1+cosx =0
cos x = -1
x= pi
2006-08-14 01:45:00
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answer #3
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answered by fred 055 4
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1)cosec x + cot x =1
=> 1/sin x + cos x / sin x =1
=> (1 + cos x ) / sin x = 1
=> 1 + cos x = sin x
Squaring both sides :
=> (1 + cos x)^2 = sin^2 x
=> 1 + cos^2 x +2cos x = 1 - cos ^2 x
=> 2 cos^2 x + 2 cos x = 0
=> cos x = -1
Therefore , x = ⥠(pi)
2006-08-14 03:43:11
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answer #4
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answered by Genius__me!!!!!!!! 2
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1.
1/sin(x) + cos(x)/sin(x) = 1
(1 + cos(x)) / sin(x) = 1
1 + cos(x) = sin(x)
(1 + cos(x))^2 = (sin(x)) ^2
(1 + cos(x))^2 = 1 - (cos(x))^2
(cos(x))^2 + 2cos(x) + 1 = 1 - (cos(x))^2
(cos(x))^2 + 2cos(x) = - (cos(x))^2
2(cos(x))^2 + 2cos(x) = 0
cos(x) + 1 = 0
cos(x) = -1
... this didn't work. I did something wrong. Ignore this.
2.
1 + cos(x) = 0 (1 - cos(x)) where 1-cos(x) <> 0
1 + cos(x) = 0
cos(x) = -1
x = -5(pi), -3(pi), pi, 3(pi), 5(pi), ...
2006-08-14 01:44:07
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answer #5
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answered by Michael M 6
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Try the answers in the back of the book!
2006-08-14 01:43:37
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answer #6
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answered by amyjune289 3
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sorry but i really dont feel like thinking right now
2006-08-14 01:44:07
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answer #7
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answered by alli 3
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leave it for high schl kids
2006-08-14 02:32:37
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answer #8
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answered by dextrodex 1
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