2006-08-13 10:58:49 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Home & Garden ➔ Other - Home & Garden
If both houses are on the same piece of land, whoever holds the deed to the land owns both houses.
Good luck with your problem.
2006-08-15 23:59:10 · answer #1 · answered by exbuilder 7 · 9⤊ 0⤋
i dont understand how 2 house's on one property can be owned by different people..it should all be on the same deed..do you rent the house?...if rented the landlord decides who gets what part of the property to use..
2006-08-13 18:42:53 · answer #2 · answered by bllnickie 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if the deed does not say specifically then each party has 1/2 ownership in the entire lot. i.e., neither party has specific ownership to any part, like owning a share of a company. If you own a share in McDonald's, you own part of the whole thing, not like, a french fry machine!
2006-08-13 18:06:16 · answer #3 · answered by a_lo 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
check out the deed
2006-08-13 18:05:00 · answer #4 · answered by mr handy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
try going to city hall and look at the maps.
2006-08-13 18:01:04 · answer #5 · answered by puzzle55usa 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋