2006-08-13 10:50:48 · 16 answers · asked by omnigomni 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
I'm not sure,I never understood "Peggy" short for Margaret,huh?lol
Just doesn't make sense if ya ask me
2006-08-13 10:53:45 · answer #1 · answered by dragonfly 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Always wondered that myself because I just couldn't see how a John could be a Jack. It's like calling Paul, Pete.
2006-08-13 10:53:50 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm guessing its because John is the most common name in the world, it's a way to differentiate people named John from one another.
2006-08-13 10:54:19 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I have often wondered this. I think it is because John is such a common name. My grandfather and uncle were both named John. John Jr. went by Jack.
2006-08-13 10:54:24 · answer #4 · answered by Laura N 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There's no logic to it. Jack was originally a variation of James (Jacques). It was also a name given to sailors (Jack Tar) in the same way that soldiers are called Tommy.
2006-08-13 11:00:30 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Father in law called John - real name = Clarence.
Friend called John = real name = Philip.
John must be easier to spell and say - maybe ?
Bleedin odd isn't it !
2006-08-13 10:58:45 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its just a common established nickname. After all you cannot make any other name shorter.
2006-08-13 10:55:57 · answer #7 · answered by Robere 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It might be that the French equivalent for John is Jacques, and so the nick.
2006-08-13 10:56:54 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
probably the same reason people named
Robert are called Bob for short
2006-08-13 10:56:22 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No idea mate! I also have no idea why my dads family call him Ken, when his name is William Hendrick Colin!!!!
2006-08-13 10:54:34 · answer #10 · answered by manorris3265 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋