2006-08-12 16:02:40 · 18 answers · asked by David G 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
This problem is very simple. First you find the most common denominator, in this case 6, and then you find a conversion factor to get from 2/3 to ?/6, in this case it is 2 so we multiply 2/2 to 2/3 to get 4/6. Then you simply add the Numerators, in this case it is 6, and carry over the denominators, in this case /6, making 6/6 or 1 because anything divided by itself is 1.
2006-08-12 16:12:50 · answer #1 · answered by Sniper 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1
2006-08-12 17:55:56 · answer #2 · answered by CSUFGrad2006 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1
2006-08-12 17:45:55 · answer #3 · answered by kelvin low 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1
2006-08-12 16:09:21 · answer #4 · answered by BOB W 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2/3+1/6+1/6 = 4/6 + 1/6 +1/6 = 6/6 = 1
2006-08-12 16:13:02 · answer #5 · answered by s_poetronegoro 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The answer is 1!
1/6 + 1/6 + 2/3 = 1/6 + 1/6 + 4/6 = 6/6 = 1
2006-08-12 16:09:50 · answer #6 · answered by Sexy Mama 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
One or 6/6 or 1/1
2006-08-12 16:08:55 · answer #7 · answered by Joe P 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1
2/3 +(1/6+1/6)= 2/3 +1/3 = 3/3 = 1
2006-08-12 16:05:57 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
2/3 which is the same thing as 4/6+1/6+1/6= 6/6= 1
2006-08-12 16:09:08 · answer #9 · answered by lakersforlife 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
6/6 or 1
2006-08-12 16:08:02 · answer #10 · answered by sheikaella 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋