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does that mean it was part of the Mediterranian ocean until the land was created? If that is the case, does that mean that the Palestinians did not occupy that land for 1,000 years (if it didn't exist) and have no right to Palestine because it didn't exist?

2006-08-12 13:13:20 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Politics

6 answers

Palestine existed from the Roman days.
In the year 70 AD the Romans destroyed Jerusalem and created the state of Palestine.

So your statement that there was no Palestine prior to 1948 is wrong. It should read, there was no Israel prior to 1948.

2006-08-12 13:20:11 · answer #1 · answered by Dr. D 7 · 0 0

GOOD QUESTION - Palestine was a British territory from the break up of the ottoman empire after WWI. There really was nothing there prior to the exodus of Jews to that area. Much of the land was just piled rocks and swamp infested with malaria.

The Palestinians are out of Jordan and really had not a long term presence in the area.

There is alot of controversy over who it belongs to as you have you already noticed. It it thought to be a breeding ground for WWIII
as per a plan set up by the Zionist prior to the turn of the last century.

To answer your question - the Palestinians are going to get the dirty end on the stick on this whether they have any right or not.
The Biblical record states that the land is Israels. A 1900 exile from their homeland land has not helped their case but the Palestinians really are refugees placed by Jordan and will undoubtedly be slaughtered once they get kicked out the west bank and the Gaza strip.
I hope this answers your question somewhat

2006-08-12 13:33:37 · answer #2 · answered by PAUL W 2 · 0 0

The only reason there is a "Palestinian problem" is because no other Arab country wanted the Palestinians. Most displaced Palestinians had originally wanted to settle in Jordan, but the Jordanians expelled them as if they were from a different caste. Other countries like Syria also refused to allow them to settle there. So without another place to call home, they became the symbol and excuse for Arab countries to attack Israel almost from the beginning. It had little to actually do with Palestinians, it was largely about access to Jerusalem.

2006-08-12 13:23:08 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Wally is correct, Palestine was a British protectorate after the First World War, and part of the Ottoman Empire before then

2006-08-12 13:23:20 · answer #4 · answered by thomas p 5 · 0 0

Israel has claim to the land from the time Moses freed them from Egypt. However, the problem is that the UN gave them much more than Moses did and then Israel illegally took even more than the UN provided for. All the wars and terrorist activities in the Middle East can be tied back to this taking of land that is not theirs.

2006-08-12 14:06:19 · answer #5 · answered by remmo16 4 · 0 0

Unfortunately, the world has new nazi in 21th century...

2006-08-12 13:17:34 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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