2006-08-12 11:40:03 · 7 answers · asked by teh_sexi_hotttie 4 in News & Events ➔ Current Events
Depends what the reference is.
2006-08-12 11:44:03 · answer #1 · answered by composertype 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It should depend upon the context of the statement in which the reference is made. Some people think that any reference to a race is racist no matter what the context is because they have automatically attached negative connotations with the words. This is unfortunate as it limits vocabulary.
2006-08-12 11:44:08 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the reference.
2006-08-12 11:44:53 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
They use the "Minority Manual"..............
1. I've been oppressed, because I'm (insert whatever Race/Religious Affiliation you are).
2. You're not responsible for anything, getting a job, bettering yourself, etc. because of #1 above.
3. If anyone says anything to you, remember #1 above.
4. Always remember Rule #1 above is the Best Crutch you will ever find....after awhile no one will expect anything of you at all.
2006-08-12 13:05:34 · answer #4 · answered by kristycordeaux 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it's not the reference itself, it's when you insinuate something negative or stereotypical about a specific culture of people.
2006-08-12 11:45:17 · answer #5 · answered by svetlana 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The question is to vague
2006-08-12 11:45:20 · answer #6 · answered by superd44688 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
cause darkies have no sense of humor.
2006-08-12 11:46:07 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋