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2006-08-12 09:19:39 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Politics

11 answers

What do you mean [ If ] The children of Abraham hate everybody even themselves

2006-08-12 09:24:17 · answer #1 · answered by Ibredd 7 · 1 2

Arabs are Semites too, so that's a bit ridiculous. Although of course "anti-Semitic" is generally used selectively to refer to "Jews".

One reason you don't hear the epithet used that way is that "anti-Semitic" has been tied to the visceral European Jew-hatred that so infected Russia and Germany, and the Arabs' hatred is new and different. Indeed, Arabs and Muslims barely acknowledge today that Mohammed himself preferred the Jews to the Christians and labelled Judiaism as the "better religion" of the two. (This has the curious result that if a Christian marries a Jew, under Islam the children are Jewish, and this irrespective of whether the mother is Jewish or not. Under Halachia, Jewish law, it is the mother whose religion is transmitted, never the father.)

2006-08-12 16:25:51 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

The term Arabic,these days relates to a language,not a race.The Semitic tribes evolved in the region known these days as Saudi Arabia.In other words the guys who committed 9/11 are exactly the same race of people as those currently bombing Lebanon.The Lebanese are not Arabs,they are Aryan.If a Morrocan hates a Saudi Arabian who is muslim,he is anti semitic.Jews are made up of all races of people,including Aryan.The simple answer to your question is no.

2006-08-12 16:37:05 · answer #3 · answered by morasice17 3 · 0 1

Both are semites so the arab cannot be antisemitic unless he hates both arabs and jews. .

2006-08-12 16:32:27 · answer #4 · answered by woody999 2 · 1 0

yes. ALthough semite actually refrs to arabs as well, it is used only to refer to the jews. therefore if someone hates the jews, he is considered an anti-semite.

2006-08-12 16:22:31 · answer #5 · answered by prizzma 5 · 1 1

It can not be both are Semitic its hard for a hillbilly to understand right

2006-08-12 16:45:37 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

if it is only one Jew, it does not, if it is ALL Jews or THE MAJORITY of Jews, it does make him antisemitic...

2006-08-12 16:25:37 · answer #7 · answered by kichka_2002 4 · 0 1

By definition...yes.

2006-08-12 16:24:37 · answer #8 · answered by Marshal 3 · 0 1

check out the artcile "hezbollah!" in the new issue of www.jeanvaljeanlives.com

2006-08-12 16:22:07 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

hate, yes

2006-08-12 16:22:21 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

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