2006-08-12 08:28:26 · 20 answers · asked by PAUL J 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
I would think that depends on where you live (state). Check with an attorney to see. It can't hurt to find out for sure. Good luck!
2006-08-12 08:31:37 · answer #1 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not always.
Her solicitor will say its a marital asset, but you have to prove it wasn't. Did you own it before you were wed? It's mostly long term marriages with Children to consider where the wife can expect that kind of financial settlement.
I bought a house while I was married (7 years) that we both lived in. When we divorced she tried for half, and got nothing. She refused to pay a penny even for the deposit, so I know just how you feel!
Your best bet is to argue the fact it's a very short term marriage and petition for a clean break agreement.
2006-08-12 08:35:25 · answer #2 · answered by 'Dr Greene' 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you had a prenup and it was mentioned in the prenup that the house would not be hers if you guys divorced. than no she would not get it. If you owned the house beforee you got married no, she is not entitled to it. But if you got the house while married then yes she is entitled to 1/2 the house. not all of it. Sell the house and give her half. befor you divorce her.
2006-08-12 20:50:45 · answer #3 · answered by crafty 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on what state you live in....when I got my divorce last year, his attorney told him when he put my name on the deed, it was considered a gift which meant I had just as much rights to the house as he had...even though he owned it before we married. The amount of money each pays or paid has no bearing on who has entitlement. If her name is not on the deed, and you acquired it before marriage, I dont think she would have any rights to it....but then again, it all depends on what state you live in. I happen to live in Florida....aka: the woman's state (lol)
2006-08-12 08:41:03 · answer #4 · answered by melinda l 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Most likely no she is not. If the house is in your name only, legally it is yours, even if you are married. Also any cars and other property in YOUR name only is yours too. Additionally if you owned the house BEFORE you got married then tell your lawyer that. Because any valuables you owned before the marriage is 100% yours. You need to talk to a good divorce attorney.
2006-08-12 08:43:15 · answer #5 · answered by Educated 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you live in the UK, the law usually begins at half and half. Be prepared to get less then half as Judges usually move in favour of the wife if there is a clean break settlement. Sometimes up to 75% to 25% in favour of the wife.
2006-08-12 10:48:29 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Did you purchase the house before or after you married? If it's after marriage, it's considered marital property and you could be forced to sell and split the amount or she can pay you for her share.
Did she clean it and help maintain it?
It depends on community property laws in your state as to her entitlement.
2006-08-12 08:33:58 · answer #7 · answered by CheriDonna 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would see a solicitor about this; she may be entitled to half your property, depending on the circumstances, but you really need professional knowlege to sort this out. Good Luck.
2006-08-12 12:15:10 · answer #8 · answered by k0005kat@btinternet.com 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All I can say is thank god your house is in your name as if you are now separated and only been married two years then the biatch was not worth it anyway.
2006-08-12 09:03:32 · answer #9 · answered by ooooh look @ me, lol 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
she MAY BE ENTITLED TO SOME OF IT IT DEPENDS ON HOW LONG YOU HAVE BEEN LIVING THERE BEFORE YOU GOT MARRIED, IF YOU BOTH MOVED IN TOGETHER THEN YES IF SHE MOVED IN WITH YOU THEN i DON'T THINK SO. SEE A SOLICITOR.
2006-08-12 10:29:04 · answer #10 · answered by lady_di_ar125 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋