When hitler invaded poland beacause he said german speaking poles were being abused?
2006-08-12 07:59:53 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
2001. US invasion of Iraq.
No Iraqi military forces had attacked US installations, but the US unilaterally attacked and destroyed the existing Iraqi government.
I'm not arguing whether it was a good idea or a bad one. But let's at least be honest in describing what happened.
2006-08-12 08:03:38 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
that was different. i don't believe he ever claimed that the invasion was necessary because of an imminent attack by poland on germany... that was our claim that is now pre-emptive war doctrine.
2006-08-12 08:04:13 · answer #2 · answered by uncle osbert 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Kosovo under Clinton. I'm glad Milosovic will never pose a threat again.
I'm so sorry you liberals can't remember yesterday.
2006-08-12 08:02:40 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
your example isn't even pre-emptive war. do you understand what pre-emptive war is?
2006-08-12 08:06:11 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
every war ; they use that one
2006-08-12 08:04:24 · answer #5 · answered by pahump1@verizon.net 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋