I read that any country whose uh... natural language (something like that) is one of the five "romance languages (meaing rooting from latin), it technically makes them latino/latina. Is this true? I know it sounds kind of like a dumb question, but please don't be rude.
(Also, I have no idea if this is in the right place or not. I couldn't find a place that I thought was appropriate...)
2006-08-12 04:43:28 · 5 answers · asked by sarahcurlygirl 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
No. The Italian language is very close to Latin, and modern Italy was once Rome, however, though many Italians are decended from the Latin-speaking Romans, they are not Latino.
2006-08-12 04:53:52 · answer #1 · answered by Rosasharn 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Yes they are latins because the language is based on latin and Rome is in Italy no ?
see the explanation : The meaning of the term "latino"
by Giuseppe DeSicilia
http://www.totse.com/en/politics/the_world_beyond_the_usa/themeaningofth170698.html
2006-08-12 04:51:46 · answer #2 · answered by fred 055 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No Italians are not considered Latins or Latinos, or at least I am not considered one of those. If anything we could be confused with europeans. Our language can be confused with spanish but that is the limit
2006-08-12 04:47:26 · answer #3 · answered by dmxdragon2 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Considering that latin came from what is now Italy, I think they are the first latins.
2006-08-12 05:08:02 · answer #4 · answered by DrSean 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes as far as language goes...but no in terms we use here in America, where Latino means south of the border
2006-08-12 04:50:10 · answer #5 · answered by Iamstitch2U 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋