This applies to American Hate Laws. This question assumes that a Jew attacked another Jew in America because he/she was Jewish and assumably didn't believe the same beliefs as the attacker.
2006-08-12 04:20:21 · 4 answers · asked by chessguy 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Other - Cultures & Groups
Were you born an idiot? Or did this develop over time?
2006-08-12 04:26:25 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Even when non-Jews attack Jews, because they were Jews, the attackers are not accused of hate-crimes!
So, why would a Jew also be charged with a hate crime for attacking a fellow Jew, if non-Jews are never charged, either???
2006-08-15 22:25:44 · answer #2 · answered by sfederow 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
um if i hit u a crime is a crime and yea it is hate..
2006-08-12 05:27:05 · answer #3 · answered by gypsygirl731 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
nope..probbly just assault
2006-08-12 04:22:37 · answer #4 · answered by lulu 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋