2006-08-12 02:52:06 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Business & Finance ➔ Personal Finance
Only when she dies. Marriage may have some adverse implications as well. It's usually wise to check with the local Social Security office first. I know quite a few elderly couples "living in sin" for just that reason! Dumb, eh?
2006-08-12 03:01:33 · answer #1 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would say yes once the person is dead they are no longer entitled to any.
If you are still collecting it after there dead and you have't informed that of that fact ... you can will be comitting fraud.
2006-08-12 02:58:56 · answer #2 · answered by heyho B 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
it is fraud,and as a criminal offence can be punishable by law and she could end up in prison.
2006-08-12 02:58:26 · answer #3 · answered by lex 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
i believe they stop paying only if she remarries.
2006-08-12 02:54:28 · answer #4 · answered by missybarnes 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
only if she marries or if she dies too
2006-08-12 03:05:14 · answer #5 · answered by mschaka77 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋