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I have always pondered this question. Does anyone really know for sure? If you do, please share with me and enlighten me. I am really curious.

2006-08-11 07:36:54 · 7 answers · asked by nebulaenova 2 in Arts & Humanities Books & Authors

7 answers

The only indication we have that Shakespeare might have been gay comes from the sonnets. In the early sonnets, Shakespeare writes about his great love, who happens to be a young man. While many people assume this to mean that he had a male lover and thus was either gay or bisexual, there are others who still believe that his male friend was not his lover but someone who was simply very close to him emotionally. We will never know for certain because we have such little information about Shakespeare's personal life. To find out more information on the subject, read the analysis of sonnets 1, 2, 18, 44, 104, and 144 in my 'Sonnets' section.

2006-08-11 07:43:51 · answer #1 · answered by jennifer7228 4 · 1 0

No. People (usually with their own agendas) speculate because of the male figure mentioned over and over again in his sonnets - and because it certainly appeared he didn't spend too much time in Stratford with his wife.

Maybe he was, but likely we're imposing 21st Century viewpoints on a man who lived in the 16th Century - and who was a poet to boot. People always seem to assume poets use their own voices when they write, but they're just as capable of creating a character to "speak through" as novel writers are.

2006-08-11 14:45:26 · answer #2 · answered by poohba 5 · 0 0

Of course there is no proof. What would that be, after almost 400 years? If you want to read about the arguments on the subject, here is a place to start:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sexuality_of_William_Shakespeare

2006-08-11 14:39:56 · answer #3 · answered by MOM KNOWS EVERYTHING 7 · 0 0

No, there is no proof. Researchers think maybe he might have been because he wrote some of his sonnets to a man, a Duke. Often, though, men were more "affectionate" to each other then they are today.

2006-08-11 18:09:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

in those days,when the play called for a part to be played by a girl, they used boys instead, i forget the reason, but there were kissing parts and yes they did kiss.there was no such thing as gay in those days, everyone did everyone.

2006-08-11 14:43:55 · answer #5 · answered by pooteo1 3 · 0 0

Proof or no proof. why concerned over it?

2006-08-11 14:45:06 · answer #6 · answered by Hathor 4 · 0 0

no proof and who cares?

2006-08-11 14:38:45 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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