2006-08-11 03:31:17 · 6 answers · asked by Delta D 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
No--debts incurred prior to marriage are not the responsibility of the new spouse.
2006-08-11 03:53:39 · answer #1 · answered by WonderTwit 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
simple answer is no but realistically, we get married and mix the money. depending on a circumstances, your spouse could end up getting involved without the intent or for that matter your intention. An example is if you have an IRS problem. If they go to levy an account, a joint account will get them what they want and half is your spouses money! Note that prior debts paid in community funds may (depends on state and attornies) be paid back first in a divorce situation.
Make sure your spouse knows about them and you take care to solve the monetary issue
2006-08-11 04:43:52 · answer #2 · answered by timbother@pacbell.net 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
whoever made the debt is responsible for paying back the money
2006-08-11 03:56:17 · answer #3 · answered by jaimestar64cross 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good question. I would like to know this also. It does seem that we shouldn't have to be responsible for them though. I hope not.
2006-08-11 03:52:11 · answer #4 · answered by Kelli 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the residing house is in both one among your names they could. i ought to also seem into the time-body of this, because there ought to correctly be a clause that states they could in hardship-free words come after her for most of years. also, i do no longer imagine that they could garnish your wages, yet hers they could, in hardship-free words below a courtroom order. call an criminal specialist, seem contained in the phone e book, maximum of them those days supply out loose suggestion. good success.
2016-11-29 22:02:17 · answer #5 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not in most states. I cannot speak for all.
2006-08-11 03:59:52 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋