a.90% b.70% c.94% d.84%
2006-08-10 17:23:47 · 5 answers · asked by guitarkhongday 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
The easiest way to find this is to figure out what are the chances they will all miss, then take 1 minus that.
Chance all miss = 0.5 * 0.4 * 0.3 = .06
So your answer is 94%
2006-08-10 17:28:46 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
If P is the probability for has at least one gunner hit a target, P' is the probability for no one hit a target.
P + P' = 1
P = 1 - P'
P' is the probability for no one hit a target.
P' = 0,5 (for the first gunner) x 0,4 (for the second one) x 0,3 (for the third one) = 0,06
So
P = 1 - P' = 1 - 0,06 = 0,94 or 94%
The answer is c.94%
2006-08-11 00:46:49 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
94%
1-P(none hit targets) = 1- .5*.4*.3 = .94
2006-08-11 00:29:25 · answer #3 · answered by a_liberal_economist 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It should be 1 - (prob. to miss the target) = 1 - (0.5) * (0.4) * (0.3) = .94
which means 94% is the answer
2006-08-11 06:28:21 · answer #4 · answered by Sandy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 - (1 - 0.5)(1 - 0.6)(1 - 0.7)
c. 94%
2006-08-11 00:29:03 · answer #5 · answered by Michael M 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋