The doc said I am 90% effaced. They say with your first child you efface first and then you dialate and then with your second child its the opposite..is that true and if it is could that be the reason why im 90% effaced and only 1 centimeter dialated. And after your fully effaced how long does dialation take?
2006-08-10 07:05:42 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Pregnancy & Parenting ➔ Pregnancy
Unfortunantly labor isn't an exact thing. Your body does what it wants in response to hormones released. Effacement and dilation happen at a different pace for each pregnancy. You could remain 90% and 1 for a week or more or you could start dilating this afternoon and go into labor. Best of luck to you and congrats!!!
2006-08-10 07:10:15 · answer #1 · answered by jilldaniel_wv 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Is this your first or second?
If you have had a child already, you were probably 1 cm dilated from the time you conceived because you never close up as tight as you were to start with.
Dilation and effacement really mean NOTHING. You could be closed up tight as a drum and have a baby a few hours later. Or you could be dilated to 3-4 cm and 100% effaced and walk around that way for a week or longer.
2006-08-10 14:21:35 · answer #2 · answered by momma2mingbu 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
After you are fully effaced with this being your first child...dialation should come very soon after you reach 100%. GOOD LUCK
2006-08-10 14:13:37 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I've been 1 cm and 50% for three weeks. I know it is frustrating!!! Trust me!!! Especially when you are having contracts 3 min apart, have to crawl around your house can't take anything but Tyleonol - and they keep sending you home from the hospital!!!
2006-08-10 14:58:01 · answer #4 · answered by slowjenn7 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends
2006-08-10 14:16:58 · answer #5 · answered by dreamgirl4myboy 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋