This is a recent discovery, I found out the Bible Society of South Africa and Botswana have a copy right for the 2004 Tswana Bible. How can they copyright a text they did not write? Is this legal?
2006-08-10 03:56:18 · 7 answers · asked by lesedi 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
I suspect the Tswana spelling norms have changed. If "j" stood for the sound[y] then maybe they chose to drop an Afrikaans-inspired in favour of an English-inspired spelling. Nobody holds the copyright for the original text of the Bible, but one can hold copyright for a TRANSLATION.
2006-08-14 06:57:57 · answer #1 · answered by Cristian Mocanu 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What an excellent thought...of direction, you may desire to incorporate sufficient concepts with regard to the controversy of alternative characters and putting for his words to make experience...yet that ought to be completed in a remember-of-certainty way that made it sparkling it replaced into in simple terms "staging" for the words of Jesus. If not something, proscribing the message of the bible to the words of Jesus could ascertain than a a lot extra desirable form of "Christians" somewhat knew and understood what Jesus commanded them to do.
2016-10-01 21:47:54 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They probably didn't copyright the text itself, just the copy of it. As in it's their designs for layout and the cover, how the text is paragraphed etc...
2006-08-10 04:04:08 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Language can get lost in translation sometimes. It happens.
2006-08-10 04:19:31 · answer #4 · answered by chrstnwrtr 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I can make manj conyectures, but yokes aside, this does not reallj make sense.
2006-08-10 04:01:04 · answer #5 · answered by Mike P 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Ask Tarzan or Cheetah, they're still down there...
2006-08-10 04:02:48 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
y , does it bother jou ?
2006-08-10 03:59:24 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋