2006-08-10 02:49:36 · 34 answers · asked by keirboy 2 in Social Science ➔ Sociology
Absolutely!
The fun part about this question is seeing all the people who've got offended by it!
Read it again people! It makes a strange kind of sense!
2006-08-10 02:58:41 · answer #1 · answered by nev 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That would be true BY DEFINITION, esp if by "average" you are referring to "median" and by "intelligence" you mean IQ test. The median is the point at which 1/2 of the population falls above and 1/2 falls below. Intelligence, when the population is large enough, falls into a normal curve distribution, with 1/2 of the population above the MEAN in this case and the other 1/2 below. Thus, using the entire population of the US, we would expect approximately 1/2 to fall "below average."
2006-08-10 02:58:02 · answer #2 · answered by jurydoc 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I read a few years back that the AVERAGE intelligence of an American was 12 years. In England it was 14 years. That is supposing that respectfully they have reached the educational standards required by those ages.
President Bush has zero intelligence, and Prime minister Blair has a very good intelligence......for a poodle!
2006-08-10 03:07:51 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Well, that would change the definition of average somewhat wouldn't it?
It's my belief that most people (not just Americans; we're just more visible) have perfectly normal, average intelligence (thus the term "average"), but choose to act like complete morons.
2006-08-10 02:55:12 · answer #4 · answered by elical 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Its probably about 50/50.
However I dont think that very many Americans are very smart - which is a big difference from being intelligent.
Americans are largely oblivious to anything unless they have been told to pay attention to it. They are usually pretty good at maths and science but have no idea how to put their knowledge to use. The have very little street smarts and almost no common sense.
2006-08-10 02:57:07 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Obviously because average means that half will be above and half below. It would be the same in any country.
2006-08-10 03:48:00 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Average according to who? If its average according to americans then surely they would be classed as average instead of below average.
2006-08-10 02:54:56 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I would estimate that much more than half of Americans fall into that category. Just read people's responses and questions here.
2006-08-10 02:54:05 · answer #8 · answered by Colini 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I believe you are being the master of the obvious here.
However, if you really think it out, it may be that this statistic is not accurate. That is, if you compare I.Q.'s worldwide, you might find that America fairs slightly better or slightly worse that all citizens of the planet. I suppose your opinion on this matter would depend on whether or not you are French.
2006-08-10 03:04:11 · answer #9 · answered by Elwood Blues 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yeah i think it's true, because state of america don't need a lot of intelligent person and they use education system for produce apolitic, below average people
2006-08-10 02:58:20 · answer #10 · answered by sub-zero ide 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋