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If so is there a violation of second law of thermodynamics?

2006-08-10 02:35:45 · 4 answers · asked by goring 6 in Science & Mathematics Physics

The Instantaneous magnetic field energy produced is less than the electron energy that produced it?

2006-08-10 02:48:03 · update #1

4 answers

Not exactly sure what you are asking, but i can definitely tell you it's a solid no. No matter what the machine, you can never get an equal energy input and output, since there will always be some lost to heat or friction. The only exception to this might be antimatter, where energy input (matter) will equal energy output (energy). Output will never exceed input, however, and so the laws of thermodynamics are preserved.

2006-08-10 02:42:15 · answer #1 · answered by Dan Theman 4 · 0 0

Nope. Electricity moving through a conductor encounters resistance which generates heat. So you have lost energy before the magnetic field is even created. Once that energy is lost, you can't get it back. So the electromagnet will never have the same energy as the electrical input.

2006-08-10 02:51:36 · answer #2 · answered by sparc77 7 · 1 0

Energy in equals energy out. Unfortunately, the energy out isn't always the effect we're looking for. In an electric motor, we're looking for torque - unfortunately, we find a lot of the energy in is being used to overcome friction and resistance in the wiring and most of this energy is "wasted" in creating heat instead of the rotory motion we need. That's what all the hoopla is concerning super conductors - we could eliminate the heat and waisted energy from the resistance in the conductors.

2006-08-10 04:16:45 · answer #3 · answered by LeAnne 7 · 0 0

Any perpetual motion machine is bound to be a violation of the Second Law of Thermodynamics. But don't take my word for it! Ask your question at the US Patent Office if you want a real, full-dress brushoff!

2006-08-10 02:40:14 · answer #4 · answered by Anne Marie 6 · 0 0

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