2006-08-09 23:50:09 · 4 answers · asked by sniper 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
I've heard of reparations for a long time, pay for the crimes comitted by your ancestors against my ancestors, with interest(which is just silly, in my opinion).
Here's another argument, what of the slave owners, who bought what was legal property, in full compliance with the law of the land, and then had it stripped from them by the government with no compensation? Should they be entitled to anything? If anyone has legal recourse, it's the decendants of the slave owners!
2006-08-09 23:57:57 · answer #1 · answered by 006 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not unless they are willing to pay ALL of us.
I am not obligated to pay for the sins of someone else's relatives.
Besides,If you took all of the Us money and divided it evenly between every man woman and child,everyone
would only get something like 6500.$ Kinda not even worth it then..
2006-08-10 07:00:02 · answer #2 · answered by moebiusfox 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hey, the past is the past. Should the Beijing man pay compensation to the one he subdued, and the neanderthal and etc. This is foolish...looking for a free handout, are we?
2006-08-10 06:56:45 · answer #3 · answered by Frank 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Leave Condi outta this, she ain't the one with her hand out!
2006-08-10 06:54:40 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋