In the Declaration of Independence, was the phrase, All Men Are Created Equal, written by a slave owner?

Answer 1

Yes, he was both a slave owner and a slave ******. I wonder if he squirmed while he wrote that sentence.

Answer 2

Yes, it was "written" by Thomas Jefferson, who was a slave owner. In actuality, he really just kind of ripped off this phrase from philosopher John Locke. What he really meant is: all WHITE MEN are created equal. This excludes all other races and women.

This is why Dr. King said: "I have a dream that one day this nation will rise up and live out the true meaning of its creed: 'We hold these truths to be self-evident: that ALL men are created equal."

Answer 3

As another has pointed out, this concept was "borrowed" from John Locke by Thomas Jefferson. Locke's political philosophy had a great influence on many of the men of the 18th century. These people considered themselves rationalists. Interestingly enough, the following line which refers to inalienable rights also pays homage to Locke, but whereas Jefferson would have used Locke's entire thought of "life, liberty and property" he was forced to compromise on the property. Jefferson, and many others, believed that if one did not own property, he did not have the right to vote. The rationale behind that was that if someone owned property, then he had a vested interest in the community and would vote for the community at large. If he didn't own property, he would vote for government to grant him things that would benefit himself rather than the community at large. I have often wondered whether "the pursuit of happiness" isn't just empty verbiage.
Jefferson did experiments with his slaves, attempting to educate some of the brightest and concluded it was poor idea, according to his results. He remained twisted on the issues of slavery, but solidified his position as clearly as a man can by not freeing his slaves when he died, even though he had expressly promised freedom to several.
His position on the humanity of the Indians is also interesting. He wrote what is known as the Jefferson Bible, originally for the enlightenment of the Indians, essentially the 4 gospels with the miracles removed. Jefferson was a great admirer of Jesus but not as the one and only son of God.
Lastly, there is no inconsistency concerning this issue of men, at least from the point of 18th century rationalism; a man was one who had achieved civilized behavior in a structured society. Those hominids, like slaves and Indians and presumably others in the world, who had not achieved civilization simply were not considered men. Women, of course, achieved civilization in becoming married, and hence could exert influence upon their husbands. Frankly, when I observe the uncivilized behavior of people on the street today, as well as modern politics in general, I think that there is a great deal of Jefferson's position which has merit.

Answer 4

Yes. You must remember however that at that time slaves were not considered "men". Unfortunately many slave owners considered them just some advanced ape or sub-human. This was a way to rationalize the fact they were treating other humans like animals.

Answer 5

Yes. Thomas Jefferson owned a large plantation of slaves.

Answer 6

What kind of problem do you have with America? Do not mock the Declaration. What country are you from anyway? If you were American, you would not post this. It would not matter if it was or not, because some slave owners were actually decent to their slaves.

Answer 7

Well, since most of the writers owned slaves at the time, I would have to go with the odds and say yes.

Answer 8

Yes and no.

It was put into the Declaration by Thomas Jefferson, a slaveowner, but he was echoing a concept from John Locke, who was never a slaveowner.

So it wasn't Jefferson's original idea; I doubt he would have come with it on his own.

Answer 9

Is that a genuine question or are you just trying to be wry?

Thomas Jefferson, the author of the Constitution, was, in fact, a slave owner.

Answer 10

Yes it was. During that time in our dark history (colored) people were not considered men. I believe it was even later when they were consider 2/3 of a person. what can say we have have changed. at least some of us.

Answer 11

yes, i think it was thomas jefferson who wrote that, if im not mistaken, and he later became president, and he did own slaves. see in those times when someone referred to people as "men", they meant all men that were white and owned land, meaning only rich white men were considered men. remember, even white woman had rules to follow in these times.