Does the Umpire not call it or does the batter benefit of some sort?
2006-08-09 07:37:38 · 19 answers · asked by twinkieman93 2 in Sports ➔ Baseball
You cant balk if there's noone on base. When you balk, it is because you decieve the runner, not the batter.
2006-08-09 07:45:48 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
In baseball, a pitcher may commit a number of illegal motions or actions which constitute a balk. If a balk occurs, the current play is allowed to continue. If each baserunner advances one base safely, the infraction is ignored. Otherwise, the balk is called "no pitch" and each runner is awarded one base.
There are two motivations behind the balk rule. A pitcher is constrained to a certain set of motions prior to and during a pitch; if these are violated, a procedural balk will be called. Some pitching actions are illegally deceptive to runners or the batter; these punitive balks penalize such deception.
If no runners are on base and the pitcher commits an otherwise balkable action, several consequences may result. Most balks are deceptive to runners but not to the batter; these infractions are ignored when no runners are on base. When a pitcher commits an illegal action that is confusing to the batter, time will be called and the game will restart with a normal pitch; there is no further penalty. Finally, illegal quick return pitches are penalized by adding one ball to the batter's count. If a pitcher repeatedly commits illegal actions without runners on base, he may be subject to ejection from the game for persistently violating the rules.
2006-08-09 07:57:22 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Depending on the situation the infraction may result as an illegal pitch, where as the batter will receive a ball. A balk may not be called without men on base. A balk will only occur with men on base. Otherwise it is considered an illegal pitch.
2006-08-09 08:06:17 · answer #3 · answered by Dah veed 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No call. There is no such thing as a balk with the bases empty. The pitcher just starts over.
2006-08-09 10:46:16 · answer #4 · answered by mattlenny 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The whole purpose of a balk is a pitcher deceiving a RUNNER. Therefore, you cannot balk when there are no runners on.
Tug McGraw of the Phillies had a bet with someone where he said if he was on the mound with no runners on and FELL DOWN, it wouldn't be a balk. Sure enough, he got on the mound, no one was on, fell down and nothing was called.
2006-08-09 09:11:18 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The batter is awarded a ball for that pitch or no pitch, he only walks if it is the fourth ball, also it is considered a balk even if no one is on base!
2006-08-09 08:05:16 · answer #6 · answered by Cags18 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You can't balk if someone is not on first base. Put I do like the answer about taking everyone to Denny's , the pitchers treat
2006-08-09 08:50:01 · answer #7 · answered by mick987g 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
A balk can only occur if a man is on base.
2006-08-09 07:48:05 · answer #8 · answered by goododie4 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It is not called a balk but if he does something that would be considered illegal the umpire will call a ball. Rule 8.01 (d).
2006-08-09 07:55:36 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
There is no such thing as a balk without a runner on base
2006-08-09 08:21:18 · answer #10 · answered by DUKE 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋