Didn't Hiroshima bombing violate the Geneva Convention?

Question

Doesn't the Geneva Convention say that civilian targets can not be target if they aren't military installations? Did it apply to the U.S. at that time? Or was immune to it? Were Japanese civilians protected under the convention despite coming from an aggressor nation?

P.S. I'm not trying to be a revisionist or point fingers, I was just curious about the Geneva convention and how it applies to nuclear weapons in warfare.

Answer 1

The geneva convention came after the bomb, didnt it?

Answer 2

The were many deciding factors in chosing Hiroshima nad Nagasaki as two of the four primary targets. Population, Military inportance, Absence of a P.O.W. camp. Civilians are not targeted (except today if youor considered a terrorist) but are usually killed by most military action is population centers. The Hiroshima museum in Hiroshima Japan is a great place to feel and learn about the history of those events. By the way, Japan was not adhereing to the policies of the Geneva Convention at that time. Many P.O.W camps had the captive working in terrible conditions, sickness even starvation. If you want the combatant you fight to follow rulesof engagement, follow them yourself.

Answer 3

It must have violated the Geneva Convention. But AFTER the war, president Truman (unlike the currents & 2 previous US presidents would in his place) never threatened enyone with newclear weapons, though the US was the only neclear power then.