My own philosophical question for you to infer – broad yet specific.
2006-08-09 01:43:34 · 18 answers · asked by Answers Anyone 4 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
The answer is yes because *ignorance* is the word we use to refer to "a condition or state of not knowing something." Why you don't know something is not part of the definition of the word. Stupidity and Ignorance are not synonyms bec you can have knowledge of something and not be ignorant yet still be able to think &/or act stupidly.
Sadly, the distinction is lost on many. Stupidity is worse than Ignorance bec the stupid person almost always knew better!
file TWH 08102006
2006-08-09 02:16:46 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the first place, there is no knowledge present and this state can be termed ignorance. So we fill up on all the information we can collect, and become knowledgeable. This is very basic and everyone goes through this process.
However, there is also another part to this. We collect knowledge to build a representation of reality within our minds. Then at some point a realization may occur that this externally accumulated knowledge is of no real value. No matter how accurate the map is, it will never be the city. Our interpretation and representation of reality will never be reality. At this point the significance of the structure of knowledge ends. This state cannot be termed ignorance, rather a going beyond knowledge and ignorance. But to try to explain it would mean to try and fit it into the knowledge structure that already exists!
2006-08-09 09:46:24 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
We are not supposed to know everything in the world or universe.
Hence if no knowledge of a specific information need not be ignorance.
We need not know so many things. Medicine only a doctor knows. Plants study only Biologist knows.
Hence absence of knowledge is not ignorance.
Then what is ignorance?
2006-08-09 09:02:50 · answer #3 · answered by Mr Fact 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
By dictionary definition, I would say yes. But the spirit, the connotation of the words, no. When someone is deemed to be ignorant, it seems to imply they do not intend on ever changing that, so while I am presently ignorant of how to play the piano, that will change... I hope. See what I'm getting at? English is a funny language, words mean so much more than their definitions.
2006-08-09 08:58:35 · answer #4 · answered by Alobar 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, if you lack knowledge on a specific subject - on that specific subject you are ignorant. That is not to say you can not learn it. It merely means that at this time you don't know it. Ignorance is correctable - but stupid is forever.
2006-08-09 09:09:53 · answer #5 · answered by 1mom 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Means the presence of stupidity.
2006-08-09 10:13:17 · answer #6 · answered by Grim Reaper 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yeah ...like the absence of light automatically mean the presence of darkness :)
2006-08-09 10:18:38 · answer #7 · answered by fem 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No,because the aim is not to know everything,but to try to learn.So ,in a case of absence of knowledge,if one tries to know ,there is no ignorance.
P.S.Good question.
2006-08-09 09:31:46 · answer #8 · answered by gina 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I prefer to use the term ignorance in the sense of ignoring something, not "not knowing", so I'd say no.
2006-08-11 08:00:27 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, someone who is studying science for example.
They lack the knowledge to apply their craft, that doesn't make them ignorant.
2006-08-09 08:58:16 · answer #10 · answered by eyes_of_iceblue 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋