2006-08-08 15:51:30 · 22 answers · asked by the9391 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
0.
well...only after you take the derivative of 4.
2006-08-08 16:02:13 · answer #1 · answered by cassandra 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
4
2006-08-08 16:22:21 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
4
2006-08-08 15:56:02 · answer #3 · answered by matriculann 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2(1+1)
2006-08-08 16:17:54 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
2 + 2 = 11 in base 3
2 + 2 = 10 in base 4
2 + 2 = 4 in any base greater than 4
2006-08-08 16:07:07 · answer #5 · answered by Jay T 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
5
2006-08-08 15:57:10 · answer #6 · answered by hootrs23 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"2+2=?" is an equation. On solving the equation using decimal number system and assuming that no units are attached to the numbers you get
?=4
People have tried too hard to prove 2+2 = 5 but all of them have a loop hole in their answers. However 2+2=4 has not been disproved yet. Hence a general belief is that 2+2=4.
2006-08-08 17:47:27 · answer #7 · answered by Abhinav B 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The factor ? is equals to the intergers 2 and 2 fused in molecular technology, resulting in a brand new interger known as 4, regarded as a symbol of bad luck in certain places undisclosed.
2006-08-08 16:18:24 · answer #8 · answered by natnoj 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think things are improving earlier people used to ask 1+1. Answer is 4
2006-08-08 16:12:25 · answer #9 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
0 mod 1
0 mod 2
1 mod 3
0 mod 4
4 mod n; n > 4, n integer
4 in traditional
5 in 'wrong' math
? in literal world :P
2006-08-08 18:52:42 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋