2006-08-08 10:12:58 · 8 answers · asked by Beavis 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
any answer from canada?
2006-08-08 10:43:28 · update #1
Not in my country!!NO way!!
2006-08-08 10:21:37 · answer #1 · answered by slipper 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
it depends on what state you reside in...it also depends on how long you were living together before you were married...in some states, if you are together or in a relationship for a long time living under the same roof and doing all the things a married couple does just without the title, you would possibly have to split your assets...its just very difficult to get a ruling in your favor....
2006-08-08 17:24:27 · answer #2 · answered by Bubbles 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope
2006-08-08 17:16:55 · answer #3 · answered by Jet 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes if it was property bought jointly when they were in a relationship, but absolutely no if it was bought before their relationship (married or otherwise) began.
2006-08-08 17:17:05 · answer #4 · answered by Flutter 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if you both paid for that property during marriage, yes, he/she will have a share, if you don't have a prenup.
2006-08-08 17:17:44 · answer #5 · answered by Discovery 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Check your local state laws. I'm almost 100% certain it would be.
2006-08-08 17:24:52 · answer #6 · answered by purpleama456 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no
2006-08-08 18:09:42 · answer #7 · answered by Princess 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no way!
2006-08-08 17:29:14 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋