I purchased some wrought iron gates 18 months ago. They were powder coated in black and I was told they were galvanised and would not rust. I have chased it up with the company who claim that they had sub-let that part of the business and were not liable, however they have since taken the business back and can correct the problem for a fee.
2006-08-08 10:11:06 · 14 answers · asked by rgk20eg 2 in Home & Garden ➔ Maintenance & Repairs
Take all your papers from the purchase of the gates, along with photos with some proof of date etc, and take them to the tRading Standards Department of your local council, if all is in order, there should be grounds under the Sale of Goods Act
2006-08-08 10:15:11 · answer #1 · answered by SunnyDays 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Depends on how long they were guaranteed not to rust for.
Failing that, the 1976 Sale of Goods Act has a section on "Fit for purpose" - ie is it reasonable that they rusted after 18months? Does this effect how they work?
Going legal can be expensive.
If they where less than £500, I'd try the small claims court and a solicitors letter. (Cost you £50)
2006-08-08 10:16:19 · answer #2 · answered by Glen G 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Galvanised iron is silver, not black. Adding the powder coating should not, but can, affect it.
The company is at fault. Sub-let or otherwise, that was either false advertising or a faulty product.
Providing you haven't done anything you shouldn't you may be able to get free replacements or repair.
2006-08-08 10:15:43 · answer #3 · answered by ty_rosewood 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Unless you have a written guarantee or proof that they supposed to rust proof I would say you do not have a case that would stand up in court.
The goods have to be fit for the purpose for which they were sold under tha sale of goods act;however unless rust proof gates(proof required) it is not unreasonable to find metal rusting !
Sorry !
2006-08-08 10:17:46 · answer #4 · answered by any 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Plain and simple Iron rusts, no way around it... HOWEVER, if powder coating is properly applied it should deter rust and provide what could be called rust proofing. This still would not guarantee they would never rust, although it should take many years until rust appears...
2006-08-08 10:16:37 · answer #5 · answered by alaskanecho 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Justin Bieber.
2016-03-27 04:12:11 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the "owners" who made the guarantee are no longer the "owners", I don't see much recourse.
I sold a business, but my sales contract stipulated that the new owner would honor my guarantees for one year. He did.
I'm US.
2006-08-08 10:20:08 · answer #7 · answered by ed 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
You've a *very* good case. The manufacturer didn't provide the items they promised. They stole from you. Simple theft.
Though the old company may have 'gone bust' and so there's no-one to sue.
2006-08-08 10:16:40 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Sub let or not it is still their problem I would advise citizens advice who may contact them for you, it is sometimes a lot easier doing this rather than immediate legal action.
2006-08-08 10:16:34 · answer #9 · answered by David 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Contact your local trading standards office - they will advise you how to go about complaining and the correct procedures to follow to make sure you're covered if you need to take things further.
2006-08-08 10:14:38 · answer #10 · answered by seaside_girl_03 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋