can any one prove sec[cos^-1(0)-sin^-1(-1)]?

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2006-08-08 09:12:15 · 3 answers · asked by chany 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics

Is there anything to prove when its not in an equality?

2006-08-08 10:01:00 · answer #1 · answered by bigowl181 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋

[cos^-1(0) = pi/2
[sin^-1(-1) = 3pi/2
cos^-1(0)-sin^-1(-1) = pi/2 - 3pi/2 = - pi
So :
sec[cos^-1(0)-sin^-1(-1)] = sec (-pi) = -1

2006-08-08 09:23:02 · answer #2 · answered by a_ebnlhaitham 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋

cos^-1(0)=pi/2
sin^-1(-1)=-pi/2
so we now have. . .
sec(pi/2--pi/2)=sec(pi/2+pi/2)=sec(pi)=-1

2006-08-08 10:02:57 · answer #3 · answered by the_greater_nate 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋