That says that sides which are shorter have bigger angles in an isosceles triangle and sides which are longer have smaller angle?
2006-08-08 06:20:37 · 5 answers · asked by Dark angel 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
No.
2006-08-08 07:48:01 · answer #1 · answered by tuhinrao 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think you might be able to refine your statement to something that can be proven, yes. However, I don't think your idea has a name, no.
I'm guessing the angles you are talking about are the ones adjacent to the side? In this case, for any triangle, if you increase the length of a side, you are necessarily increasing the magnitude of the angle opposite the side. Since all three angles add to 180, this means that the angles adjacent to the side you just enlarged will be made smaller.
So, I think you can refine your statement to be more precise, and be able to prove it without too much difficulty.
2006-08-08 13:30:42 · answer #2 · answered by arbeit 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No; that is never true. For example, draw a triangle that has 2 sides with the measure of 5 cm and the third side 1 cm. The corresponding angle measures of the longer sides is more than the corresponding angle measure of the third side.
2006-08-08 13:30:51 · answer #3 · answered by flit 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no
it is the other way about
smaller ides have smaller angles opposite tothemand greater sides have bigger angles opposite to them.
however in isosceles triangles angles opposite to the equal sides are equal
2006-08-08 13:37:33 · answer #4 · answered by raj 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The closest I can think of is the law of cosines.
In a triangle with sides a, b, and c with angle Î opposite side c
c² = a² + b² -2*a*b*cos(Î)
Doug
2006-08-08 13:34:13 · answer #5 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋