prove that ::: (100 -100)/(100-100) = 2
Write all the steps Best of luck!!!
2006-08-07 23:53:57 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Trivia
100-100/100-100= 10^2-10^2/10(10-10)
=(10-10)(10+10)/10(10-10)
=cancelling 10-10
=20/10
= 2
2006-08-07 23:59:33 · answer #1 · answered by Vanchit S 2 · 1⤊ 3⤋
1. Assume:a = b
2. Then:a-b = 0
3. Also:(a-b) = 2 (a-b)
4. Divide Both sides by (a-b):(a-b)/(a-b) = 2 (a-b)/(a-b)
5. Cancelling on the Right Side:(a-b)/(a-b) = 2
6. If a = 100, b = 100
7. (100 -100)/(100-100) = 2
QED
Note:
The basic flaw is in step 4. You cannot divid by (a-b) as that is a division by zero.
2006-08-08 00:08:56 · answer #2 · answered by JustAskMe 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It doesn't. Any attempt to prove that is based on false reasoning.
Evaluate brackets first: Both brackets evaluate to zero. The result of dividing zero by any number (except zero) is zero. The result of dividing any number by a very small number is a very large number and tends to infinity as the divisor tends to zero.
The answer is not infinity, nor is it zero. It is what is called indeterminate ... in other words, there is no answer.
2 is a rational number and is NOT equal to infinity.
Edit: Vanchit's math is wrong ... his difference of two squares should be:
(10 - 10)(10 + 10) = 0*20 = 0
2006-08-08 00:00:50 · answer #3 · answered by Owlwings 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The statement is false. 100-100=0, 0 multiplied by anything is 0.
2006-08-08 05:26:58 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
100-100=0
0/0= infinity coz anything divided by zero is infinity
and not 2 which is a natural no.
2006-08-07 23:59:10 · answer #5 · answered by ♥♥ ĎᵲέӚϻ_ῬѓїЍϚ€$Ṧ ♥♥ 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No; for two reasons. You can not divide anything by 0; and even if you do divide a number by itself, the result is 1. 1 does not equal 2.
2006-08-07 23:58:41 · answer #6 · answered by grinningleaf 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
(100-100)=0
so (100-100)/(100-100)=0/0=infinite
and 2 can be equal to infinite
infinite=2
so
(100 -100)/(100-100) = 2
2006-08-08 00:00:40 · answer #7 · answered by the great man of lake mauvia 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
notice: that's no longer in all probability a riddle. Riddles are a sprint greater imprecise. besides, you have an expression. basically use it modern cost = 0.75x - 0.15(0.75x) = 0.75x (a million - 0.15) = x * 0.seventy 5 * 0.eighty 5 whilst unique cost = $40 8, then modern sale cost = $40 8 * 0.seventy 5 * 0.eighty 5 = $30.60 ---------------- unique cost = x 1st sale cost = seventy 5% of unique cost = 0.seventy 5 * x 2d sale cost = 15% off of 1st sale cost = eighty 5% of 1st sale cost = 0.eighty 5 * 0.seventy 5 * x
2016-09-29 01:03:01 · answer #8 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no but unless u for got to put a - infront of one of the 100's
2006-08-08 00:04:50 · answer #9 · answered by carlos g 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
=0/0=2?
what pls?
2006-08-07 23:57:19 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋