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You know, 'We are not amused' etc.

2006-08-07 23:04:48 · 4 answers · asked by XYZ 7 in Society & Culture Royalty

4 answers

It is not entirely clear why they do this but I believe that it originated with the set of Royal Protocol Rules introduced by Prince Albert when he married Queen Victoria. As Germans they beleived strongly in authority and convention and Albert introduced many innovations into the royal way of life.

For example no Royal must ever show emotion except for smiling and laughter.
No Royal will attend a funeral except that of another crowned head.
No Royal must be touched by a commoner.
No royal must be spoken to by a commoner unless they are spoken to first.
Royals must be referred to as 'Your Highness' then 'Sir' or 'Ma'am except for the Monarch who will be 'Your Majesty' and always in the third person. For example one might say "Has Your Majesty had a pleasant journey?" rather than "Have you had a pleasant journey?"

The Royal 'We' refers to the protocol that the queen or king would never divulge what she or he thought so would say 'We' meaning that all the royal household thought that way and she or he was speaking for all as it was assumed that no-one in the royal circle would disagree with the Monarch.

Victoria's favourite and most famous phrase was 'We are not amused.' the origin of which is supposed to be as follows:-

Victoria's comment is said to have been inspired by the Hon. Alexander Grantham (Alick) Yorke, one of her grooms-in-waiting. (A relative described him as an "elderly pansy." Flower lover, I guess.) The job of a groom-in-waiting, or anyway Alick's job, was to hang around the castle and be funny. As all wits know, however, you're funnier some days than others. On one of Alick's not-so-funny days, some say, he told a risque story to a German guest ("Gab es ein junger Mann von Nantucket ..."), who laughed loudly, moving the queen to ask that the story be repeated. It was, and she wasn't. Amused, I mean. She was not using the royal "we," though, but rather was speaking for the affronted ladies of the court.

Another version has it that in one of the amateur theatricals Alick liked to organize at the palace he undertook to do an impression of Victoria, who failed to see the humour of it. Still others say the queen was disposed to say "We are not amused" whenever the conversation took a ribald turn..

2006-08-08 05:37:22 · answer #1 · answered by quatt47 7 · 1 0

I think the origin and the purpose of the royal "we" are the same: to be distinguished from the general population.

"The second person plural
("ye" and "you" --- possessive "your") began to be used among royalty, as the kings, queens, lords, etc. referred to themselves in the PLURAL, as a distinction from the common people. The king might say, referring ONLY to HIMSELF, "WE would like OUR tea now." So the servants, courtiers, and other common people used the second person plural to speak to them. I will bring you (indirect object, second person plural) your tea right away, sire."

As an interesting note based on my own experience, the plural "we" is also used in French ("nous") by public officers and lawyers on public documents. I suppose it has the same origin as in English: it started with royalty.

2006-08-09 09:25:45 · answer #2 · answered by Belindita 5 · 0 0

I don't know how it originated. When the monarch says "we", he/she is referring not to herself or himself but is speaking for the people.

2006-08-08 07:28:21 · answer #3 · answered by Steffi 3 · 0 0

I'm sure that the infamous "THEY" came up with the "We" stuff. As they say.....

2006-08-08 06:08:32 · answer #4 · answered by Precious 7 · 0 0

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