2006-08-07 22:19:32 · 9 answers · asked by joy_blue03 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
No. A moving object has a velocity v.
p=mv (momentum)
KE=0.5mv>2 (kinetic energy)
meaning if there is motion, there has to be both momentum and kinetic energy.
2006-08-07 22:43:01 · answer #1 · answered by dennis_d_wurm 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No
The only way an object can achieve kinetic energy without momentum was if it's motion was parralell to another body in identical motion (As a satalite with kinetic energy relative to the earth due it's exerted gravitational force but not in motion and therefore without momentum) Or as a complex mechanism where the movement of one or more parts are generating kinetic energy but the mechanism as a whole is stationary. However, both of these examples involve something other than a single object.
2006-08-07 22:50:52 · answer #2 · answered by W0LF 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Momentum is the product of mass and velocity.
For zero momentum either mass or velocity is zero.
Kinetic energy is momentum times half the velocity.
Since momentum is zero K.E is also zero.
When an object is at rest both its kinetic energy and momentum is zero
2006-08-07 22:44:11 · answer #3 · answered by Pearlsawme 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. If it just rotates, it has positive kinetic energy (E=1/2 I omega^2, where I is the moment of inertia relative to the rotation axis). But rotation does not give it a momentum. It does give it an angular momentum, though. But that's something else.
2006-08-07 22:56:08 · answer #4 · answered by helene_thygesen 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Momentum,P=mv=0 Then,v=0. enable angular speed be w and radius be r. v=rw So,w=0 So,there can neither be rotational nor translational ok.E. So,a single merchandise can't have ok.E. on a similar time as having 0 momentum.
2016-12-11 04:56:14 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Human can be full of energy but may be day-dreaming in his comfortable chair of his plush A.C. office cabin with a awesome personal secretary at hand.
2006-08-08 23:59:40 · answer #6 · answered by Mani G.India 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes an object having uniform velocity on a frictionless plain
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2006-08-07 22:26:01 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. In both cases it has to have both mass and velocity.
Ke = .5mv²
M = mv
Doug
2006-08-07 22:27:17 · answer #8 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
sure, "T.N.T."
2006-08-07 22:23:45 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋