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mathematically or ethically or logically or in what way the answer or solution to be achieved is there any possibility

2006-08-07 20:24:11 · 6 answers · asked by yenaryen_pati 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

1+1=2 ok
1+1=3 not ok. impossible to prove

1*1 = 1 necessarily since 1 is the common notation for the neutral number for multiplication.

2006-08-07 20:30:59 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Think the other way.
You have a monkey. I give another monkey. How many do you have now? Answer: Two

Our ancestors in the process of developing language - gave the symbol '2' for the number which represents two quantities.

Similarly for 3, 4.... These are just figures which represent three, four.

And '+' stands for addition. When I gave you a monkey, you added one monkey and another monkey. So it becomes 1 + 1

One monkey added to another monkey is two monkeys. (If you don't agree this - then think like Adam. How he would have counted apples, if he had 4 children and each person needs 2 apples , how many apples he has to take?)

In maths form, 1 + 1 = 2

Numbers are short representation of long words.


Similarly for multiplication. x * y means adding x 'y' times.
1 * 1 = add 1 one time = 1
3 * 2 = add 3 two times = 3 + 3 = 6

2006-08-08 03:43:36 · answer #2 · answered by kp 3 · 0 0

(I have used a^2 for representing power 2...i.e., a squared)

LET A = B (no tricks or violation of basic laws...it is actually a concept)

Now multiply both sides by B...
i.e., AB = B^2 ... (B squared)

Subtract A^2 from both sides...
=> A^2 - AB = A^2 - B^2
can b simplified as....
A(A - B) = (A+B)*(A-B)...(bookmark this eqn.)

Now substitute both A and B as 1(we have taken A=B...so v substitute both of them as 1)

The steps will be repeated as
1 = 1...
......and so on and now come to the last step... and substitute 1 in place of both A and B...

1 * (1-1) = (1 + 1)*(1 - 1)

We know that, Equal terms on both sides of "=" sign can be cancelled...so cancelling out the "(1 - 1)" term from both sides...
we have 1 = 1 + 1
i.e., 1 = 2.

This is actually called Bool's Law...This procedure actually made mathematicians to include one small property in Mathematics that "zero" (in any form like (1 -1)...) on both sides of "=" sign cannot be cancelled...But from this procedure, u can say that
1*1 = 1 = 2...



and now to prove that 1 + 1 = 3....:

now check this out...

we know that -20 = -20

i.e., 4*4 -(2*4*9/2) = 5*5 - (2*5*9/2)

adding (9/2)^2 on both sides,

4*4 - (2*4*9/2) + (9/2)^2 = 5*5 - (2*5*9/2) + (9/2)^2

implies...

(4 - 9/2)^2 = (5 - 9/2)^2..... (by (a - b)^2 formula)

i.e., 4 - 9/2 = 5 - 9/2

now wat can u c... 4 = 5


any two consecutive nos. can proven like this to b equal.....
so we know that 1 +1 = 2...
but now 2 = 3 !!!
so 1 + 1 = 3...hahaha!!!
isn't it logical...???

strange mathematics...stranger mathematicians!!! :)

2006-08-08 04:32:49 · answer #3 · answered by haridravid 2 · 0 1

1+1=2: standard, base 10 arithemetic.

1+1=3: assume "+" is the string concatenation operator. this "1+1" = "11", which is 3 in binary.

1*1=2: obvious from movie "Swimfan", cited below.

1*1=3: mother and father yeild a child, which is "1 cross 1 makes 3"

2006-08-08 03:34:52 · answer #4 · answered by Neal 2 · 0 1

1+1=2
but if 1=2
then any thing happen like this
1/inf =2/inf =any no/inf

2006-08-08 05:08:29 · answer #5 · answered by sanjeewa 4 · 0 0

yes its is possible

2006-08-08 03:32:54 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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