external force is a factor.
2006-08-07 20:17:38
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Inertia and mass are equivalent for all purposes, as some clever but sensitive experiments have shown. There is no known reason for this other than the supposition that they are both aspects of a single underlying reality, whose nature we don't understand. If someone came up with a Theory of Everything, we might have a better answer, but Einstein spent the last years of his life looking for such a thing and came up empty. Trying to marry quantum mechanics with general relativity is a decidedly non-trivial task.
2006-08-08 04:12:32
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes.
Inertia is the tendency of a body to resist acceleration; the tendency of a body at rest to remain at rest or of a body in straight line motion to stay in motion in a straight line unless acted on by an outside force.
If the mass is more, more force will be required to change its state of motion or rest.
Hence, inertia is directly proportional to mass.
To the best of my knowledge, inertia depends only on mass & gravity.
2006-08-08 04:10:42
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answer #3
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answered by whatever 2
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yes it does because the definition of inertia is the tendency of an object of some mass that is at rest to stay at rest and one that is moving to remain moving in the same direction until and unless an external force acts on it.
2006-08-08 03:21:57
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answer #4
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answered by mad_sci_123 2
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Newton's first law defines inertia.it is the tendency of the external force to change the state of rest or of uniform motion of a body .
2006-08-08 03:28:44
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes.
2006-08-08 03:43:29
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answer #6
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answered by meno25 2
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the only other thing I can think of is gravity
2006-08-08 03:26:45
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answer #7
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answered by Mav 6
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