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{and a husband she had been separated from since about 1970- but technically 'married' to}
the 3 siblings sell both homes and divide the money 4 ways. (fortunately the estranged spouse relenquished his share to the only sibling w/kids }
the questions is kinda of two fold.
1) should the husband have INCLUDED the wife in the discussion of the selling of the property.
2) should the husband have INCLUDED the wife in the discussion of the HOW the proceeds should be divided.
3) should the husband INCLUDE the wife in how HIS share of the money is to be spent. even though when it was all said & done very little was spent on the husband alone. much was spent on the wife or on SHARED items.

2006-08-07 12:05:48 · 5 answers · asked by bi2unicorn 3 in Family & Relationships Marriage & Divorce

5 answers

I feel that since it was the husbands mother, the wife shouldn't have to be included in the decisions. It's his choice. It would have been nice to be discussed on how money was spent in case of joint bills that need to be paid off, but I don't feel that it is necessary.

2006-08-07 12:12:25 · answer #1 · answered by Nikki 2 · 0 0

No wives or husbands have nothing to do with spliting money that belonged to 1 of the married couple's parents. The money should be only divided and discussed between all the CHILDREN of that dead person, no wives, husbands, or kids of the adult children.

2006-08-07 13:28:32 · answer #2 · answered by Educated 7 · 0 0

If the husband and wife are separated then it is none of the wife's business.

2006-08-07 12:43:41 · answer #3 · answered by Desiree S 3 · 0 0

Well sure he probably should have discussed it with his wife but legally he, and only he, had the legal right to make those decisions.

2006-08-07 14:16:08 · answer #4 · answered by Unknown Oscillator 3 · 0 0

yes too all three quetions

2006-08-07 12:11:04 · answer #5 · answered by asha 3 · 0 0

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