I was assigned to this area here in Tx which I didn't like, so I didn't take it and didn't sign the contract. The company paid for my housing already though, but I didn't spend even an hour in there. Am I liable for something even if I didn't sign anything?
2006-08-07
08:58:02
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20 answers
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asked by
zachary_red
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in
Business & Finance
➔ Careers & Employment
Actually I didn't like the area of the housing (the school is primitive, there's hardly a transport at all, stores are few). So I requested the agency to find me a different housing in a much larger area but they won't because they already paid for the housing and they can't get it back.
2006-08-07
12:24:24 ·
update #1
If they paid for your housing it appears as though there was at least a verbal agreement that you consented. And the fact that you spent anytime at all, even though its was less than an hour indicates an implied consent. Even if you never signed the agreement you at least went through the initial motions which is enough for most companies to argue that you agreed despite not having signed.
Contract law is tough. And Texas is very conservative when it comes to following the law. Its not the place I'd want to test a contract law case.
2006-08-07 09:11:47
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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You may be liable, but I would need more facts. Most importantly, the employment contract.
It is a common misconception that you have to sign a contract to be liable.
If the company paid money in reliance on your representations to work for them, then you may have to compensate them if you have no valid excuse for changing the deal.
As an analogy, it would be the same if a company promised you a job, you spent money moving out there, and then they unreasonably told you that they don't need you. You could probably get some money for your expenses since you relied on their promise to hire you, even if you didn't sign anything.
You may be liable for maybe a month's rent of housing they paid or another reasonable amount. You may not be liable at all, depending on what you said to them about going to Texas. If your job requires you to take assignments, you may be liable for losses from a possible breach regardless of what you signed.
2006-08-07 09:07:24
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answer #2
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answered by ? 5
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If any of you've been minors on the time, then you could no longer have made a legally binding contract in maximum states. in case you've been adults and also you probably did not signal something, it may be as a lot as the different party to teach that you made some style of verbal contract to pay for it. Debt creditors wont have a danger of amassing from those that they are instructed owes the debt by ability of the debtor. in case you want to be a reliable man or woman, understanding you and others shared in having an outstanding time that brought about this once chum to adventure the discomfort of being lashed with the expenditures...it may probably be a reliable idea to attempt to assist releive the commercial burden that they mistakenly aquired. set up a fundraiser of a few style consisting of your committee and attempt to assist the girl out.
2016-11-23 14:38:56
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answer #3
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answered by freije 4
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You can sometimes be held liable. I know this isn't the answer you want to hear...but it depends.
In law, there is something called promissory estoppel. It means that you agreed to something, someone else performed some action/act and then you changed your mind, thus inflicting monetary damage on them.
It really depends on the state and the specifics. Typically, all real estate transactions are required to be in writing and you can probably get out of it, but it will cost you legal fees if they pursue it.
http://homepage.gallaudet.edu/marshall.wick/bus447/promissory_estoppel.html
2006-08-07 09:05:59
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answer #4
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answered by Just askn with a smile 1
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Depends on if there was an implicit agreement involved at any point. I recommend talking to a lawyer, but you should probably only be liable for any money the company paid you for moving.
2006-08-07 09:03:37
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answer #5
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answered by John J 6
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If there was a contract and u didn't sign it than i am pretty sure u r not liable. They cannot make u pay something that u didn't "legally" have. I would chk state laws but most likely u r not liable. GOOD LUCK
2006-08-07 09:02:21
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answer #6
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answered by Dorothy 2
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Probably not.
You do not have to sign a paper for a contract to be binding, however, in hiring people, unless you sign an agreement to indemnify them for expenses, that is just the risk the employer takes and the cost of doing business.
Ignore any demands anyone make of you unless you receive a summons to appear in court.
2006-08-07 09:02:45
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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My guess would be no unless there was a verbal agreement of some kind or language in your original appointment hiring paperwork. You should contact an attorney to cover your bases (some will provide free counsel over the phone... check your local yellow pages).
2006-08-07 09:03:17
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answer #8
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answered by mJc 7
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It would be thrown out of court without a written, signed contract. Verbal agreements are worth zip in the business world.
2006-08-07 09:02:57
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answer #9
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answered by Nicktu 2
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there's something missing from this question...but it appears that it is job related and in order to find your answer you may have to go back to your original employment contract, if there should be one. if no employment contract exists then I am in agreement...if you didn't sign a contract, you shouldn't be liable...but keep in mind, I am not an attorney.
2006-08-07 09:07:51
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answer #10
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answered by gmommy 3
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