Hypothetical: 1 out, 2 strikes, 3 balls, guy on first.
Pitcher pitches the ball, batter swings and misses but the ball is in the dirt, catcher must either tag player or throw to first. The batter realized he is probably out so he just chugs slowly down the baseline. NOW, can the catcher throw the ball to 2nd and then turn it to first for the double play because there was a force and both bags since the batter was running due to the dropped swinging strikeout? I hope this is understandable, help?
2006-08-05 18:20:46 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports ➔ Baseball
The batter is automatically out with less than two outs so the runner on 1st doesn't have to advance. If the runner on first does attempt to go to second the batter is still out but the runner can be thrown out at second in what would be a steal attempt so that would be one way that a double play could be turned in that situation.
2006-08-05 18:28:19 · answer #1 · answered by shominyyuspa 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
With less than two outs, 1B must be un-occupied for a batter to advance on a dropped third strike.
He may advance on a D3K with 2 outs however.
Also the "occupied" is at the time of the pitch, so a runner who is stealing still would occupy (legally hold) 1B.
In your scene, the batter is out, but the catcher could pick-off the runner at first, or second if he were off the bag. If the runner was stealing and the catcher guns him, that would be the common, "Strike 'em out, throw 'em out" play.
2006-08-06 08:47:45 · answer #2 · answered by br549 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
With less than two outs, and first base occupied, the batter is automatically out on a swinging third strike, whether it's caught or not. The correct play for the catcher would be to throw to 2nd base, but that runner must be tagged. It is not a force out.
With two outs, the catcher DOES have to throw the batter out at first, or tag him.
2006-08-09 09:27:39 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No its cause if he swings at strike 3 but the ball is in the dirt hes already out but he can TRY to run to 1st base so if you throw it to 2nd you dont have to throw it to first because its a swinging strike out in the dirt.
2006-08-06 01:26:20 · answer #4 · answered by $pik3 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if its a runner on first the batter is out and the runner can advance on his own
2006-08-06 02:10:57 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think the second baseman would have to tag the runner on first.
2006-08-06 01:44:34 · answer #6 · answered by westsida 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
this happened to me a few years back, they called me out automatically, but i ran to first and they tagged the runner and he was called out also
2006-08-06 14:15:11 · answer #7 · answered by five oh 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no....the runner at first has the option to run...so he can just stand at first.
2006-08-06 01:24:52 · answer #8 · answered by bbosun 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
were did dat come from?
2006-08-09 22:37:16 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋