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2006-08-05 09:39:11 · 11 answers · asked by hi:) 2 in Science & Mathematics Biology

11 answers

Nope.

The parents both have type OO blood. The daughter has type AA or AO blood. Neither of the parents could have donated an A type to her.

2006-08-05 09:43:19 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No they cannot. In the Landsteiner blood groups (ABO) the genes for surface markers are A and B which are co-dominant. The absence of either of these alleles makes a person have type O blood. If you have A or B, even in single allele copy, you express that surface marker.

As follows for specific alleles:

A + A = A; A + null = A; A + B = AB
B + B = B; B + null = B; B + A = AB
null + null = O


In the interest of full information however, extremely rarely, a persons blood type could change as a result of a malignancy or an infection.

2006-08-05 14:48:16 · answer #2 · answered by Gene Guy 5 · 0 0

No- A and B types are dominant traits, while o is recessive. A person needs two copies of the o gene to express Type O blood. This means that the genotypes of her parents are oo x oo. If her blood type is A, one of her parents also had to be Type A or AB (3 possibilites: AA, Ao, or AB) for the A to get passed on genetically.

The only way she can be their daughter is by adoption.

2006-08-05 14:15:09 · answer #3 · answered by Hauntedfox 5 · 0 0

yes they can but it got vary few change u see because phenotypes are often affected by more than one gene , so they are a phenomenon call epistasis and create the bombay phenotype
In 1952, a very unusual situation provided information concerning the genetic basis of the H substance. A woman in Bombay displayed a unique genetic history inconsistent with her blood type. In need of a transfusion, she was found to lack both the A and B antigens and was thus typed as O. However one of her parents was type AB, and she was the obvious donor of an IB allele to two of her offspring. Thus, she was genetically type B, but functionally type O!
This woman was subsequently shown to be homozygous for a rare recessive mutation in a gene designated FUT1 (encoding an enzyme, fucosyl transferase), which prevented her from synthesizing the complete H substance. In this mutation, the terminal portion of the carbohydrate chain protruding from the red cell membrane lacks fucose, normally added by the enzyme. In the absence of fucose, the enzymes specified by the IA and 1B alleles apparently are unable to recognize the incomplete H substance as a proper substrate. Thus, neither the terminal galactose nor N-acetylgalac-tosamine can be added, even though the appropriate enzymes capable of doing so are present and functional. As a result, the ABO system genotype cannot be expressed in individuals homozygous for the mutant form of the FUT1 gene, and they are functionally type O. To distinguish them from the rest of the population, they are said to demonstrate the Bombay phe-notype. The frequency of the mutant FUT1 allele is exceedingly low. Hence, the vast majority of the human population can synthesize the H substance.

2006-08-05 21:11:39 · answer #4 · answered by johnson 3 · 0 0

Robbet03 and many of the rest are correct in that type O parents could not have a type A child, at least in straight biology. But then of course they could have adopted the child or the mother could have been impregnated by someone other than the type O father (someone who was either type A or type AB).

2006-08-05 17:06:08 · answer #5 · answered by Eric G 2 · 0 0

Yes, the O is recessive. If both parents have the gene for A and the gene for O, then approximately one fourth of those parents' children should be type O, the rest would be type A.

2006-08-05 09:43:35 · answer #6 · answered by OPM 7 · 0 0

No. O is a recessive trait and must be homozygous that is ii and two O parents (ii X ii) can not produce a type A daughter. However, the Rh factor can be +.

2006-08-05 09:55:22 · answer #7 · answered by Chris 4 · 0 0

No because the parents are homozygous recessive which means that they have no other genetic info to give to their children, only O's. But the daughter could be positive because that is dominate so she could be O + or O -. I studied this last year.

2006-08-05 10:25:15 · answer #8 · answered by Will Crown 3 · 0 0

No. To be O means you lack the A and B antigens. Two parents lacking the genes which code for these antigens (which are co-dominant) cannot have a child with either of these antigens.

2006-08-05 12:34:06 · answer #9 · answered by Stephanie S 6 · 0 0

never , nope none.

but two A+ parents have a possibility to have 0+ daughter

2006-08-05 17:34:41 · answer #10 · answered by Papilio paris 5 · 0 0

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