2006-08-05 07:17:15 · 7 answers · asked by Kanan 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Nikki might be right. It came from India, and was introduced in the West relatively recently.
The Romans, for example, didn't have it. There is no zero in the Roman number system. Also, there is no Year Zero. 1 BC (or 1 BCE, to be pc) was immediately followed by 1 AD (or 1 CE).
Some of this is based on what we call the "natural numbers" or the "counting numbers". You count 1, 2, 3 .... According to that model, zero is meaningless, since you can't count nothing.
Once zero was introduced, things improved almost immediately, because zero could be used as a placeholder in our decimal numbering system. The number 105 means 1 x 10^2, plus 0 x 10, plus 5. Without the zero, you can't write it that way.
2006-08-05 07:29:22 · answer #1 · answered by bpiguy 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
He was the first man popularly known as ADAM.
He already felt and realized the concept of something missing, of nothing, or what he has not, before mankind became many.
He was lonely to have a 0 wife.
2006-08-05 07:47:07 · answer #2 · answered by Ou Myu 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The ancient Indians are usually credited with the zero.
2006-08-05 07:28:27 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Either the ancient Babylonians or the Mayans, depending on which "expert" you decide to believe.
2006-08-05 07:25:00 · answer #4 · answered by Chug-a-Lug 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Aryabhatta....
2006-08-05 07:21:38 · answer #5 · answered by nikki 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the indian mathematics wizard "Aryabhatta"
2006-08-05 07:27:49 · answer #6 · answered by maximus 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
nobody
2006-08-05 07:22:20 · answer #7 · answered by Alan Winans 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋