I believe it does.
2006-08-04 14:47:23 · 6 answers · asked by fresh2 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
According to Lord Acton it does.
2006-08-04 14:56:10 · answer #1 · answered by kristycordeaux 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
That's odd. I just referred to that quote "Power tends to corrupt; absolute power corrupts absolutely" in my answer to another question. Yes, I think that's true, which is why this country was established to assure a balance of power. All the idiots who want to compare Pres. Bush to Hitler have little understanding of how much real power the President of the United States has. For all the promises candidates make, what they can accomplish as president depends heavily on Congress actually passing laws and budges, and both the executive and legislative branches can always be limited by decisions in the courts.
2006-08-04 21:59:40 · answer #2 · answered by just♪wondering 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Have you ever heard of an instance where it hasn't? Do you count the Pope?
2006-08-04 23:28:25 · answer #3 · answered by frofus 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
could anyone absolutely know for sure?
I think not.
2006-08-04 21:51:05 · answer #4 · answered by anonacoup 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Look at the American government now!!!
2006-08-04 21:52:13 · answer #5 · answered by powhound 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. But only if you use it.
2006-08-04 21:55:14 · answer #6 · answered by T 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋