2006-08-04 05:26:40 · 14 answers · asked by Mia_Bella 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
50/50..BUT...i have 2 boys and a girl...my daughter being my third child...we were sure she would be a boy after already having 2 boys and my husband is 1 out of 6 boys...so we just assumed boy...we were WRONG!! Don't assume anything...get a sonogram to be sure...
2006-08-04 05:31:48 · answer #1 · answered by irishmomof3 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You can't use pure statistics on this as there are way to many factors involved.
Scientifically, the biggest factors are the time and position of conception. Male sperm are stronger and faster but have less stamina. This means that if you had intercourse close to the time that you ovulated, you are more likely to have a boy because the earlier before ovulation you have intercourse, the less likely it is that any male sperm have the stamina to hang around and conceive. Female sperm may take longer to get to the egg but they hang around longer.
Also, you're more likely to have a boy if you have intercourse with deep penetration as opposed to the missionary position for the same reason above.
All in all, hard to tell what your chances of a girl are but why not just wait until the ultrasound if that you're that interested in knowing.
2006-08-04 12:46:24 · answer #2 · answered by mel 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is not a physics question perse. But to answer your question, the probability for another girl this time is still 50%. The fact that you had previously given birth to two girls has absolutely no bearing on the chances of having another girls this time.
2006-08-04 12:30:47 · answer #3 · answered by PhysicsDude 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Statistically, for the population as a whole is 51/49 boy/girl.
But for individuals the statistical probabilities have to be adjusted by past history in the family, which only you knows
2006-08-04 13:11:46 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
50-50. past instances do not change the statistics of this one. It's like flipping a coin. It's always 50-50
2006-08-04 12:30:15 · answer #5 · answered by Tim H 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
50-50
2006-08-04 12:29:17 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/8
2006-08-04 12:29:24 · answer #7 · answered by Z-cakes 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
50 / 50
2006-08-04 12:32:42 · answer #8 · answered by grudgrime 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
50/50. You can only have a boy or girl!
2006-08-04 12:49:30 · answer #9 · answered by prcla2000 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the father's sperm. If the same man fathered all 3 children, it may be more likely that this child will also be a girl.
2006-08-04 12:30:44 · answer #10 · answered by kja63 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋