Have been transferred deeds of home but 1st and 2nd mortgages remain in both names, need to remortgage to indemnify ex from loans, however in receipt of benefits and so far no-one wants to know.
2006-08-04 01:42:22 · 7 answers · asked by Hunny 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Are you the transferee? If so, you should have indemnified your spouse in the consent order within the divorce proceedings. If so, then you don't need to remortgage. If your spouse has trouble getting a mortgage, he/she will have to ask a mortgage lender to refer his/her appln. to their underwriters. Most of the time, if the other person has indemnified them in the consent order, a new lender will give them a new mortgage because there's no risk of them having to pay the old mortgages. Your solicitor should have gone through all of this with you.
2006-08-04 01:49:43 · answer #1 · answered by david 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
GMAC gave me a mortgage when I split with my ex and had to get him off the mortgage, I was on child tax credits and working part time, low income though. There are free mortgage brokers who can help, they get their commission off the lender when the mortgage completes, they will be able to advise you.
2006-08-04 02:03:19 · answer #2 · answered by lisaandmax 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not sure if they will help but I used Birmingham Midshires for mine. I have poor credit history and they were the only ones who would lend with a reasonable interest rate.
2006-08-04 01:59:04 · answer #3 · answered by Stephanie C 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
David is correct that is the only advice you need here, get in touch with your solicitor asap
2006-08-05 22:07:55 · answer #4 · answered by harrierzero1 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
call all the banks
2006-08-04 20:53:42 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Don't know
2006-08-04 10:07:58 · answer #6 · answered by Jewells 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it maybe possible.
2006-08-04 19:58:23 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋