2006-08-04 00:21:45 · 11 answers · asked by Nainika Vats 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the applied unbalanced force in the direction of the force.
2006-08-04 00:36:57 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Newtons 2nd law also called real law as it contains also the other 2 laws states that F is directly proportional to mass and acceleration of the object.
ie F=kma
where k is the constant and its value is taken to be 1
therefore F=ma
2006-08-04 10:14:55 · answer #2 · answered by Whamper 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When a resultant force acts on an objectof constant mass, an acceleration will result with the product of its mass and acceleration equal to the resultant force, the direction of the acceleration being in the same direction as that of the resultant force.
2006-08-04 07:53:11 · answer #3 · answered by U know who 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
An object in motion will continue to move in the direction it is going unless acted upon by an outside force.
2006-08-04 07:25:55 · answer #4 · answered by SteveA8 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the force experienced and inversely proportional to its mass
2006-08-04 07:38:27 · answer #5 · answered by bs 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The second law is F=ma
2006-08-04 07:27:03 · answer #6 · answered by Synaps 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
F=ma
(force is equal to mass times acceleration)
2006-08-04 07:26:56 · answer #7 · answered by kangaruth 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
according the second law of newton, a thing want constant on its intial position if any outer force did not apply in it . if it is movable then it want moving ,if it is constant it want constant .
2006-08-04 07:31:08 · answer #8 · answered by surender r 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
F=m.a
Force is directly proportional to the mass & acceleration.
2006-08-04 08:14:11 · answer #9 · answered by ~~Jeevan~~ 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it is the rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the accelaration... or F=ma.. both mean the same...
2006-08-04 07:26:48 · answer #10 · answered by neha 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋