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Its almost a normal distribution, only its biased. Have been searching web can find out what it's called. I'm sure this must be covered somewhere, just not sure where.

2006-08-03 21:47:44 · 7 answers · asked by rjleiser 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

7 answers

Hi

Could be that the word you need is 'skewed' then ...........

Is this what you mean?

http://www.itl.nist.gov/div898/handbook/eda/section3/histogr6.htm

Good luck!

K x

2006-08-03 21:56:02 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 9 1

Every cell has DNA and it is consisted of two strands tightly woven around each other. The thing that prevents the two strands from breaking apart is called a telomeric cap (which is random nucleotide sequences called nonsense codons. Codon is a 3 sequence of nucleotides that codes for amino acids eg. CUU is a amino acid called proline . A nonsense codon is one that doesnt code for any amino acid production) Every time your cells divide a small sequence is lost there by reducing the stability of the cell's DNA (in layman's terms). This will eventually lead do most of Ur cells' DNA becoming unstable. And usually when a mistake occurs in DNA the cell will perform auto cytolysis (cell suicide) to prevent problems. So when you are old most of ur cells telomeric caps will be low and they are prone to die when they try to divide.. Whats really interesting about this theory is the impact it has on evolution (because this happens on both meiotic as well as mitotic divisions. which means that a species grows old too before it mutates.. but thats a different story)

2016-03-26 22:39:02 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I've tried working out your problem... but its taken me hours and no proper result. My understanding is that the highest is the counted and u want the distribution of this. So if there is a six, that is the point. A five is superseded only by a six etc. A one has a poor chance.

This is a half bell curve with the head close to the six area.

2006-08-04 00:46:41 · answer #3 · answered by blind_chameleon 5 · 0 0

I reckon Katypops has it. It's definitely skewed towards the higher numbers.

By the way: it cannot be a normal distribution. A normal distribution has continuous answers (i.e. it's not just 1,2,3 etc. but any number i.e. 3.448577564). A normal distribution also has no bottom end and no top end (in theory. In practice most things have limits, such as you can't go below 0 degrees kelvin, but it can still be used to approximate it).

2006-08-04 01:34:04 · answer #4 · answered by Steve-Bob 4 · 0 0

Surely it would approximate to a normal distribution the more times you shook them? You would need to do this many (hundreds of) times though. My guess is that you haven't shaken the dice enough for your answer to be statistically valid.

2006-08-04 00:33:19 · answer #5 · answered by grpr1964 4 · 0 0

combination may be because u r selecting the highest roll

2006-08-04 01:01:50 · answer #6 · answered by priya 2 · 0 0

it is like this
4 , 5 , 6
i , i , i

i =1 to 4

2006-08-03 22:11:15 · answer #7 · answered by Jatta 2 · 0 0

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