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Suppose a person takes a trip in a rocket ship from one planet to another at a speed that is significant to the speed of light say at least 10%. at a point exactly half way between the two planets his path is exactly perpendicular to the line of sight of another observer on a third planet at least as far away as is the person in the rocket ship's trip. At this point the person on the rocket ship fires a beam of light or a radio transmission at each of the planets he is traveling between. According to theory the speed of light is the same for all observers. So the person in the rocket ship should see each beam traveling away from him at the same speed thus the beam of light reaching each planet at a different time. But the observer on the third planet should also see each beam travelling from their point of origin at the same speed and reach each planet at the same time. How is this possible?

2006-08-03 18:52:41 · 12 answers · asked by Ron Allen 3 in Science & Mathematics Physics

Assume all three planets are stationary with respect to each other

2006-08-03 19:37:41 · update #1

12 answers

This is exactly the kind of question Einstein answered in his 1905 paper about relativity principle (he didn't mention rockets, obviously). It is a very clear paper you should read:
"On the Electrodynamics of Moving Bodies" (Annalen der Physik, 1905).

2006-08-03 19:37:55 · answer #1 · answered by ascaniosobrero 3 · 0 0

You have stated that exactly at the midpoint between the planets, a light beam is fired from the ship.

Suppose that the clock in the ship is showing 12 when he fires the light beam.

Let the two planets are separated by a distance of 2.16 x10^12 m.

From the ship the distances of the three planets are 1.08 x10 ^12 m. (This is the distance for a light beam to travel in one hour)

These distances are with respect to the observer in the third planet.

Let us suppose that the planets also have similar clocks and all are showing 12 at the exact instant when the beam is fired.

Further assume that there is no relative motion between the planets.

Since the speed of light is constant and distances from the point of emission of light is the same for all planets, the light beam will reach the three planets when their clocks show 1, ( because light takes one hour to cross 1.08 x10 ^12 m)

Let us suppose the ship is moving with a speed of 0.8 C. The ship’s clock will move slowly.

When all the clocks in the planets show 1, his clock will show only 12 hour 36 minute.

Further all the observers in the planets judge the distances to each planet from the point of firing as 1.08 x10^12 m,

The man in the space ship will judge the distances as only 0.648 x 10^12 meter only.

He will calculate the light speed as 0.648 x 10^12 / 36 = 1.8 x10^10 meter per minute. Or 3x10 ^8 m/s.

The observers in the planets will say the space ship has reached one of the planets, when their clocks shows 1- 15.

The man in the space ship will say that he has reached the planet when his clock shows 12- 45.

If light’s speed is to be measured the same by all observers these things will happen like this.

2006-08-04 03:22:03 · answer #2 · answered by Pearlsawme 7 · 0 0

If the third planet is traveling in the same direction as the beam that was fired second, and at the appropriate speed, then time dilation will cause the observer on the third planet to see that the beams reached the other two planets at the same time.

2006-08-04 02:09:19 · answer #3 · answered by prune 3 · 0 0

Because the speed of light is constant, If the craft is moving and fires a beam of light the beam of light moves the speed of light, not the speed of light plus the spaceships speed. What is a strange thing is that an observer on the second planet would have aged more than the man in the space ship at the time of arrival.

2006-08-04 02:01:01 · answer #4 · answered by Austin S 2 · 0 0

You've misunderstood the theory of relativity. Light travels the same speed without regard for a starting velocity. At the halfway point, the two beams would each reach their target planet at the same time.

2006-08-04 03:11:13 · answer #5 · answered by tke999 3 · 0 0

The speed of light is so fast that if you see it, you will notice that it reaches any destination, no matter how far away at the same time.

For instance if the electric supply is opened from a power station nearer to India then Pakistan, the bulb in each country would be lighted at the same time.

2006-08-04 02:06:01 · answer #6 · answered by U know who 3 · 0 0

Because the speed of light is the same relative to all positions and velocities. The speed of light isn't a speed limit, but a universal constant. It's counter-intuitive, and there's no way to understand it intuitively, because all of our experience comes from the newtonian physics that we observe every day.

2006-08-04 02:04:56 · answer #7 · answered by RabidBunyip 4 · 0 0

actually wat u r asking is incorrect in a sense as far as i've known light phenomenon and studied it light's speed will appear n be actually same for any abserver at anytime and it's the ultimate speed nothing in this world can ever exceed speed of light beacuz doing this will create numerous paradoxes...n absurd events...and phenomenas of time dillation lenght contaction age reduction r only prominent enough if we travel at a speed which is around 80 to 90% of light's speed

2006-08-04 02:22:41 · answer #8 · answered by jumpy jack 1 · 0 0

try it and see
lol this is the best answer you're gonna get on yahoo answers. everyone who knows is old enough to think this service is trivial and immature

2006-08-04 01:58:28 · answer #9 · answered by deluxe_pow 3 · 0 0

ich habe keine idee!

2006-08-04 01:58:53 · answer #10 · answered by bigbob33 3 · 0 0

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