My daughter signed a one year lease (as typed in on the top of the lease) on Sept 1, 2005. Sometime in June she received a notice saying her lease was up on July 31, 2006. Upon calling the rental company and explaining that she needed to be there until the end of August (the end of the 1 year), she was told she would have to sign another 1 year lease as the first lease was dated to end on 7/31/2006 (hand written in). Does the hand written date override the typed lease terms?
2006-08-03
16:05:53
·
6 answers
·
asked by
Anonymous
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics