This function is not differentiable at x=0.
2006-08-03 05:02:15
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answer #1
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answered by mathematician 7
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The derivative of that function is: f`(x) = 2/(3*x^1/3) which is asymptotic to the x axis. Therefore, f`(x) can never by equal to zero, which means that Rolles' Theorem does not apply to this interval (i.e. the function is non-continuous over this interval)
2006-08-03 12:07:17
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answer #2
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answered by Mr__Roarke 2
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Mathematician and Mr. Roarke are both correct. Judging from their avatars, they are also brothers. Why did they go their separate ways--one into a secret government agency, and the other into the Weather Underground? What will happen when they meet on opposite sides of the law?
2006-08-03 13:05:12
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answer #3
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answered by Benjamin N 4
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No se si me podrias repetir la pregunta mas clara porque no le cacho pero creo que si se la respuesta....es porque es solo una hipotesis lo del intervalo [-1,1]...
2006-08-03 14:21:10
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answer #4
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answered by williamcito 1
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there is no x between -1 and 1 for which the derivative of x is 0.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rolle's_theorem
2006-08-03 12:01:25
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Elementary, the hypotenuse is fictitious. Coordinate the duodenum with a proportionate flange.
2006-08-03 11:59:08
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answer #6
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answered by mickeycushman 2
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according to you 0 is not the answer?
2006-08-03 12:07:44
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answer #7
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answered by Caro G 1
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