Does Israel's right to exist give Native American Indians the "right " to have the United States back.What is the difference??
2006-08-03 00:58:00 · 8 answers · asked by wibad100 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
The State of Israel was founded in 1947. So, the answer is no; there is no such official map.
As for the second part of your question. It is highly, extremely, ultra controversial. From the Israeli perspective the land of Canaan (current Israel, Palestine, Lebanon and some part of Jordan) belonged to the sons of Israel by divine law. So, they see it is in their every right to obtain these lands by any means possible. From the Palestinian perspective, well those lands were their home for thousands of years (when the Hebrews were on "exile") and naturally they do not wish to leave. Those lands belonged to the Ottomans before they were purchased by the Zionists in late 19th century to achieve the ideal of State of Israel.
So, if the Israeli perspective is right, then yes, the Native Americans should have the right to kick the immigrants out and re-claim their lands. Also, as a Turk, I should be able to re-claim the lands we ruled during Imperial Times and a Greek should be able to re-claim our homeland because they were there first (i.e. The Byzantines). And a Brit would have the right to re-claim India, while a Dane would re-claim the entire British Isles standing on the fact that they were once ruled by the Vikings, Danish ancestors. So, you see, there is no end to such claims. And this is not the way international politics should be applied.
Hope this is helpful.
2006-08-03 01:16:44 · answer #1 · answered by Dynergy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The difference is that prior to the Balfour declaration, the British government owned about 50% of the land in Transjordan---Israel, Jordan, the West Bank, Gaza etc. There were Arabic and British private citizens--absentee owners also. The land was given to the United Nations with specific instructions according to the mandate.
In America, the land always belonged to the Indians. The Indians gave permission to the homeless original immigrants to kill a few buffalo and to take refuge. Prior to the arrival of the immigrants, the native people never fenced their lands- -their animals were allowed to graze freely.
The United Nations carved up Transjordan with the belief that the Jordanians and the Palestinians would have been compatible--so they parted Transjordan into two: One part for the Jews and another part for the Arabs. The Palestinians were left out of the equation. The problem lies with the fact that many left the Israeli side and went to Jordan. They were unwelcome. When Jordan cut its peace deal with Israel, they left out the Palestinians also. Every neighbour cut its own peace deal and left out the Palestinians. Guess who the Palestinians are looking to solve their land issue?
The difference is that no-one addresses the Indians' land issue. Supposedly time will make the matter right. Guess what? As I write this, the U.S government is fighting the Indians in the courts for oil rights on the last fenced portion they have, called "reservations."
Boaz.
2006-08-03 01:15:30 · answer #2 · answered by Boaz 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Israel came into existence as a result of a UN partition in 1948. I don't believe Israel has a "right" to exist, but the reality is the nation does exist, and it is not going away anytime soon. Outfits like Hezbollah and Hamas are fools if they think they can get rid of the nation of Israel. Unfortunately they are more interested in pursuing an unreachable dream, and as such the people who live there are destined to experience a lot more misery.
2006-08-03 01:07:24 · answer #3 · answered by DocWilsonPP22 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Israel had a large portion of the middle east . check maps in the bible.
The American Indian was a hold-over stone aged band of nomads,always trying to kill other tribes.Could not and would not exist in the modern world
2006-08-03 01:04:42 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, because it was called Palestine under British protection after the Balfour Declaration of 1924. Israel was not a country until after the UN vote of 1948.
2006-08-03 01:04:19 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
moonjuice: yes, and that land belonged to the Ottomans as well if I remember well.
2006-08-03 01:07:33 · answer #6 · answered by Nora 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course there is none.
How can there be peace when there is no JUSTICE?
2006-08-03 01:03:40 · answer #7 · answered by zaki1968 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no
2006-08-03 01:00:52 · answer #8 · answered by Anry 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋