2006-08-02 23:35:19 · 6 answers · asked by whee. 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Teaching
I'm not sure what angle to this question you would like an answer. However, I think that legality and morality are totally separate things. Sometimes, they can resemble one another. However, doing the legal thing does not subsume doing the moral thing. Sometimes the legal act may be immoral. For example, selling a slave was legal, but it certainly was never moral. Sometimes doing the moral thing means breaking a law.
2006-08-03 01:53:25 · answer #1 · answered by tianjingabi 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What is the heart of your question? Why not? Is there some reason to think that all legal acts are immoral? Are you asking which came first? Can something be viewed as moral just because it is legal or can something something be viewed as legal just becuase someone has declared a moral underpinning first?
2006-08-02 23:45:12 · answer #2 · answered by Intelligent and curious 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
moral act have its measures. if its proportional u can consider it.
for ex, mercy killing to a TERMINALLY ill person. its legal and its a moral thing.
some are vice versa, for ex,prostitutions is legal in other countries but do u consider it a moral act?
there is this thin line but it will all depends on the person who holds ground on it.
2006-08-02 23:42:08 · answer #3 · answered by nome 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not necessarily. Just because we have the right to do something doesn't make it right to do.
2006-08-02 23:40:00 · answer #4 · answered by First Lady 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, sometimes they are the same
2006-08-02 23:40:56 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not always, no.
2006-08-02 23:40:42 · answer #6 · answered by Atheist 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋